Nursing Elites

1. Each statement is true of rickets, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Rickets is being diagnosed more frequently in the United States.
• B. Rickets is caused by vitamin C deficiency.
• C. Tachetic deformities such as bow legs or knock-knees develop.
• D. A narrow and distorted chest occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin C deficiency. It usually occurs in children who are 1 to 3 years old. The name rickets came from the word 'wrikken,' meaning 'to bend or twist.' Common manifestations of rickets include tachetic deformities like bow legs or knock-knees, a narrow and distorted chest, and failure of the epiphyses of bones to develop normally, resulting in twisted and warped bones. While the diagnosis of rickets may be increasing in the United States, it is not caused by a lack of vitamin C.

2. What is the initial major sign of acute renal failure?

• A. Oliguria
• B. Hematuria
• C. Proteinuria
• D. Glycosuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is often the initial major sign of acute renal failure. This reduction in urine output indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (presence of protein in urine), and glycosuria (presence of glucose in urine) are not typically the initial major signs of acute renal failure. While they may be present in certain conditions, oliguria is the most common and critical indicator of acute renal failure.

3. What activities best describe the work of the placenta during pregnancy?

• A. surrounding and cushioning the fetus
• B. combining maternal and fetal blood stores to exchange nutrients
• C. producing hormones that maintain the pregnancy
• D. absorbing vitamins and minerals that can be transferred to the fetus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The placenta plays a crucial role in producing hormones that are necessary for maintaining pregnancy, supporting fetal development, and preparing the mother's body for childbirth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the placenta's primary function is not to surround and cushion the fetus, combine blood stores for nutrient exchange, or absorb vitamins and minerals. While the placenta does facilitate the exchange of nutrients and oxygen between the mother and fetus, its hormone production is the most critical function during pregnancy.

4. For a patient on a ketogenic diet, which macronutrient is primarily increased?

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Protein
• C. Fats
• D. Fiber

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fats. A ketogenic diet is characterized by high fat intake, moderate protein intake, and very low carbohydrate intake. This diet aims to shift the body's metabolism to use fat as the primary source of energy instead of carbohydrates. Increasing fat intake while reducing carbohydrates is essential for achieving and maintaining a state of ketosis. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the macronutrient adjustments required for a ketogenic diet.

5. A client at risk for iron-deficiency anemia is being taught by a nurse about optimizing dietary intake of iron. The nurse should explain that which of the following sources of iron is easiest for the body to absorb?

• A. Spinach
• B. Cantaloupe
• C. Chicken
• D. Lentils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Chicken.' Chicken contains heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based sources like spinach, cantaloupe, and lentils. Heme iron, as present in chicken, is more bioavailable and is better absorbed by the body, making it an excellent source of iron for individuals at risk of iron-deficiency anemia. Spinach, cantaloupe, and lentils contain non-heme iron, which is not as efficiently absorbed as heme iron.

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