each is true of rickets except one which is the exception

ATI RN

ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam

1. Each statement is true of rickets, except one. Which is the exception?

A. Rickets is being diagnosed more frequently in the United States.
B. Rickets is caused by vitamin C deficiency.
C. Tachetic deformities such as bow legs or knock-knees develop.
D. A narrow and distorted chest occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin C deficiency. It usually occurs in children who are 1 to 3 years old. The name rickets came from the word 'wrikken,' meaning 'to bend or twist.' Common manifestations of rickets include tachetic deformities like bow legs or knock-knees, a narrow and distorted chest, and failure of the epiphyses of bones to develop normally, resulting in twisted and warped bones. While the diagnosis of rickets may be increasing in the United States, it is not caused by a lack of vitamin C.

2. Each is a characteristic manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG), except one. Which is the exception?

A. Gingival erythema
B. Necrosis of interdental papilla
C. Marasmus
D. Metallic taste and foul odor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marasmus. Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition and is not a direct manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Choices A, B, and D are all characteristic manifestations of NUG. Gingival erythema, necrosis of interdental papilla, and metallic taste with foul odor are commonly associated with NUG due to the inflammatory and necrotic nature of the condition.

3. Which is NOT a prudent recommendation for a menopausal patient?

A. Supplement calcium and vitamin D slightly beyond upper intake level
B. Encourage lean protein and regular exercise
C. Avoid alcohol if xerostomia is present
D. Consumption of 90 mg daily of isoflavones in soy products helps to increase bone mass

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive supplementation of calcium and vitamin D beyond the upper intake level is not recommended unless under medical supervision, as it can cause adverse health effects.

4. What describes a criterion used to diagnose diabetes?

A. a plasma glucose concentration of 100 mg/dL or higher after a fast of at least 12 hours
B. a casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms
C. a plasma glucose concentration measured two hours after a 200-gram glucose load is 400 mg/dL or higher
D. a HbA1C higher than 5 percent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A casual blood sample of 200 mg/dL or higher in a person with classic symptoms is a diagnostic criterion for diabetes. This choice aligns with the typical clinical presentation of diabetes and is a key diagnostic indicator. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the established criteria for diagnosing diabetes, making them incorrect. Choice A pertains to a fasting plasma glucose level, Choice C involves a glucose challenge test, and Choice D refers to HbA1C levels, which are used for monitoring blood sugar control over time, not for diagnosing diabetes.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client who has bulimia nervosa. The professional should notify the provider of which of the following results?

A. White Blood Cells 5,200/mm³
B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
C. Magnesium 1.6 mg/dL
D. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below normal and requires provider notification, especially in clients with bulimia nervosa who are at risk of electrolyte imbalances. Low potassium levels can lead to serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. The other options are within or close to the normal range and would not be a priority for notification.