Nursing Elites

1. Each statement is true of rickets, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Rickets is being diagnosed more frequently in the United States.
• B. Rickets is caused by vitamin C deficiency.
• C. Tachetic deformities such as bow legs or knock-knees develop.
• D. A narrow and distorted chest occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin C deficiency. It usually occurs in children who are 1 to 3 years old. The name rickets came from the word 'wrikken,' meaning 'to bend or twist.' Common manifestations of rickets include tachetic deformities like bow legs or knock-knees, a narrow and distorted chest, and failure of the epiphyses of bones to develop normally, resulting in twisted and warped bones. While the diagnosis of rickets may be increasing in the United States, it is not caused by a lack of vitamin C.

2. Which test is used to monitor the degree of blood glucose control over a long period?

• A. Glucose tolerance test
• B. Glycated hemoglobin level
• C. Self-monitoring of blood glucose
• D. 24-hour urinary glucose excretion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, glycated hemoglobin level. The glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) test measures the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a long-term picture of glucose control. Choice A, the glucose tolerance test, measures how well your body processes glucose but is not specifically for long-term monitoring. Choice C, self-monitoring of blood glucose, involves daily testing by individuals, providing immediate rather than long-term information. Choice D, 24-hour urinary glucose excretion, measures the amount of glucose excreted in the urine over 24 hours and is not typically used for long-term monitoring of blood glucose control.

3. Which group is least susceptible to insufficient intake of protein?

• A. The elderly
• B. Individuals with low income
• C. Adults participating in endurance exercise
• D. Patients who are chronically ill

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Adults who participate in endurance exercise are typically more aware of their nutritional needs and have higher protein intake compared to other groups. The rationale behind why the other choices are incorrect is as follows: A: The elderly are often at a higher risk of insufficient protein intake due to various factors such as reduced appetite, dental issues, and decreased muscle mass. B: Individuals with low income may struggle to afford protein-rich foods, making them more susceptible to insufficient protein intake. D: Patients who are chronically ill may have specific dietary restrictions or challenges that can lead to inadequate protein consumption.

4. To follow a healthy diet, a person should be sure that:

• A. 20-35% of the total carbs eaten should be made up of fiber
• B. 45-65% of the total carbs eaten should be made up of fiber
• C. 45-65% of the total fiber eaten should be made up of soluble fiber
• D. 45-65% of the total calories eaten should be made up of carbs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) suggests that 45-65% of total daily calories should come from carbohydrates.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about nutrition to a group of clients. The healthcare provider should include that which of the following foods contains the highest level of thiamine per serving?

• A. 1 hard-boiled egg
• B. 1 cup dried pears
• C. 1 cup whole grain wheat flour
• D. 1 cup Brussels sprouts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Whole grain wheat flour contains the highest level of thiamine per serving compared to the other options provided. Thiamine, also known as Vitamin B1, is essential for energy metabolism. While eggs, dried pears, and Brussels sprouts are nutritious foods, they do not contain as high a level of thiamine as whole grain wheat flour. Therefore, the correct choice is whole grain wheat flour in this case.

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