ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam
1. Each statement is true of calcium within saliva, except one. Which is the exception?
- A. Saliva is supersaturated with calcium.
- B. Saliva is a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface.
- C. Calcium and phosphate in saliva provide a buffering action.
- D. Calcium within saliva increases dental caries.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calcium within saliva does not increase dental caries; in fact, the buffering action provided by calcium and phosphate in saliva inhibits caries formation by preventing the dissolution of enamel by plaque biofilm. Choice A is correct as saliva is indeed supersaturated with calcium. Choice B is correct as saliva serves as a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface. Choice C is correct as calcium and phosphate in saliva do provide a buffering action to protect teeth from acids.
2. A condition that is conducive to the development of dental caries is said to be _____.
- A. periodontal
- B. cariogenic
- C. gingival
- D. bacteriophilic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A condition that is conducive to the development of dental caries is described as cariogenic. Cariogenic refers to foods or conditions that promote the development of dental caries by providing an environment for bacteria to thrive and produce acids that erode tooth enamel. Choice A, periodontal, is incorrect as it relates to the supporting structures of the teeth rather than the development of dental caries. Choice C, gingival, is also incorrect as it pertains to the gums rather than the causation of dental caries. Choice D, bacteriophilic, is not the term commonly used to describe conditions that lead to dental caries, making it an incorrect choice.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30. Four weeks after nutritional counseling, which of the following evaluation findings indicates the plan of care was followed?
- A. BMI of 25
- B. Weight gain of 1.8 kg
- C. BMI of 33
- D. Weight loss of 2.7 kg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A weight loss of 2.7 kg in four weeks indicates effective adherence to a nutritional plan aimed at reducing body mass index (BMI), moving towards a healthier weight. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in weight, as shown in choice D, is the desired outcome when managing a client with a BMI of 30 to reach a healthier range.
4. When administering Tapazole, The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effect?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Seizure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
5. A client has acute dysphagia. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Providing a straw for consumption of liquids
- B. Encouraging larger bites
- C. Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position during meals
- D. Instructing the client to tilt head forward when swallowing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position during meals is the correct intervention for a client with acute dysphagia. This position helps prevent aspiration by facilitating swallowing. Providing a straw for consumption of liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration and is not recommended for clients with dysphagia. Encouraging larger bites (Choice B) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Instructing the client to tilt the head forward when swallowing (Choice D) is not the recommended technique for managing dysphagia as it does not address the underlying issue effectively.
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