Nursing Elites

1. Each statement is true of calcium within saliva, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Saliva is supersaturated with calcium.
• B. Saliva is a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface.
• C. Calcium and phosphate in saliva provide a buffering action.
• D. Calcium within saliva increases dental caries.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calcium within saliva does not increase dental caries; in fact, the buffering action provided by calcium and phosphate in saliva inhibits caries formation by preventing the dissolution of enamel by plaque biofilm. Choice A is correct as saliva is indeed supersaturated with calcium. Choice B is correct as saliva serves as a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface. Choice C is correct as calcium and phosphate in saliva do provide a buffering action to protect teeth from acids.

2. You are teaching your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Both types of diabetes mellitus clients are prone to developing ketosis.
• B. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes, which is genetic.
• C. Type I (IIDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia.
• D. Type II (NIDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Type II diabetes (NIDDM) is characterized by insulin resistance and a relative lack of insulin. It is not primarily characterized by an abnormal immune response. Option A is incorrect because only Type I diabetes clients are prone to developing ketosis due to a lack of insulin. Option B is incorrect because while Type II diabetes is more common and often preventable through lifestyle changes, it is not solely genetic. Option C is incorrect because Type I diabetes, not Type II, is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia due to an absolute lack of insulin production.

3. A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a client who has Phenylketonuria (PKU) and is planning a pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the discussion?

• A. Diet sodas should not be consumed more than two or three times a week.
• B. Serum bilirubin should be monitored once or twice a month during pregnancy.
• C. Breastfeeding will not prevent your baby from developing PKU.
• D. A low-protein diet should be followed for three months before conception.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-protein diet should be followed for three months before conception in individuals with PKU who are planning a pregnancy. This diet helps manage PKU by reducing phenylalanine levels, which is crucial for maternal and fetal health. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not directly related to managing PKU, choice B focuses on a different aspect of care during pregnancy, and choice C is inaccurate as breastfeeding will not prevent a baby from developing PKU.

4. Loss of smell results in a condition that limits the capacity to detect the flavor of food and beverages, called:

• A. hypergeusia
• B. dysgeusia
• C. anosmia
• D. phantom taste

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anosmia. Anosmia refers to the loss of smell, which significantly affects the ability to detect flavors. Hypergeusia and dysgeusia, choices A and B, refer to heightened or distorted taste, respectively. 'Phantom taste' in choice D is not the correct term for the condition described in the question.

5. In a patient with osteoporosis, which mineral is essential to prevent further bone loss?

• A. Iron
• B. Phosphorus
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcium is crucial in preventing bone loss in patients with osteoporosis.

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