Nursing Elites

1. Each statement is true of calcium within saliva, except one. Which is the exception?

• A. Saliva is supersaturated with calcium.
• B. Saliva is a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface.
• C. Calcium and phosphate in saliva provide a buffering action.
• D. Calcium within saliva increases dental caries.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calcium within saliva does not increase dental caries; in fact, the buffering action provided by calcium and phosphate in saliva inhibits caries formation by preventing the dissolution of enamel by plaque biofilm. Choice A is correct as saliva is indeed supersaturated with calcium. Choice B is correct as saliva serves as a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface. Choice C is correct as calcium and phosphate in saliva do provide a buffering action to protect teeth from acids.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about stress. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Protein requirements decrease in times of stress.
• B. Acute stress causes an increase in metabolism.
• C. Stress causes a positive nitrogen balance in the body.
• D. Glucose is broken down more slowly during times of stress.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute stress causes an increase in metabolism. During acute stress, the body's fight-or-flight response is activated, leading to an increase in metabolism to provide energy for the body to respond to the stressor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Protein requirements actually increase during times of stress to support the body's needs. Stress typically leads to a negative nitrogen balance in the body, not a positive one. Glucose is broken down more rapidly, not slowly, during times of stress to provide immediate energy.

3. Pain medications given to the burn clients are best given via what route?

• A. IV C. Oral
• B. IM D. SQ
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
• B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
• C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
• D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

5. Does taste perception decline with age, and are individuals taking three or more medications likely to have less taste sensitivity, requiring greater amounts of sodium and sugar to perceive these tastes?

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both statements are indeed true. As people age, their taste perception tends to decline. This change can be further exacerbated by the use of multiple medications, which can potentially dull taste sensitivity even more. Consequently, these individuals often need to consume foods with higher levels of sodium and sugar in order to perceive these tastes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they deny either one or both of these established facts.

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