ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam
1. Each statement is true of calcium within saliva, except one. Which is the exception?
- A. Saliva is supersaturated with calcium.
- B. Saliva is a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface.
- C. Calcium and phosphate in saliva provide a buffering action.
- D. Calcium within saliva increases dental caries.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calcium within saliva does not increase dental caries; in fact, the buffering action provided by calcium and phosphate in saliva inhibits caries formation by preventing the dissolution of enamel by plaque biofilm. Choice A is correct as saliva is indeed supersaturated with calcium. Choice B is correct as saliva serves as a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface. Choice C is correct as calcium and phosphate in saliva do provide a buffering action to protect teeth from acids.
2. What can be a potential consequence of consuming insufficient fat?
- A. constipation
- B. marasmus
- C. infertility
- D. diverticulitis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Fat is crucial for the production of hormones, including reproductive hormones. Consuming too little fat can lead to hormonal imbalances, affecting fertility. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Constipation is more commonly associated with insufficient fiber intake, marasmus is severe malnutrition due to overall calorie deficiency, and diverticulitis is often related to low fiber intake and not specifically low fat consumption.
3. What type of drug would most likely be given to a patient following a myocardial infarction?
- A. antiemetic
- B. anticoagulant
- C. anticonvulsant
- D. antibiotic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Anticoagulants are the most suitable choice for a patient following a myocardial infarction. These medications are essential in preventing further blood clots from forming in the arteries, reducing the risk of complications such as strokes or recurrent heart attacks. Antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not directly related to myocardial infarction. Anticonvulsants are used to manage seizures, not typically indicated after a heart attack. Antibiotics are prescribed to treat bacterial infections, not routinely given after a myocardial infarction.
4. A patient is admitted to the emergency room and is found to have proteinuria, a low serum albumin level, edema, and elevated blood lipids. Which condition do these symptoms typically associate with?
- A. Nephrotic syndrome
- B. Acute kidney injury
- C. Rejection of a kidney transplant
- D. Renal colic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (excess protein in urine), hypoalbuminemia (low serum albumin), edema (swelling due to fluid buildup), and hyperlipidemia (elevated blood lipids). These symptoms occur as a result of damage to the kidneys' filtering units. Acute kidney injury, rejection of a kidney transplant, and renal colic do not present with the same combination of symptoms as nephrotic syndrome. Acute kidney injury typically presents with a sudden decrease in kidney function, resulting in a build-up of waste products in the blood. Rejection of a kidney transplant may present with fever, pain at the transplant site, and changes in urine output. Renal colic usually presents with intense pain in the lower back or side, related to kidney stones.
5. AIDS enteropathy is most commonly manifested as _____.
- A. abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
- B. diarrhea and weight loss
- C. abdominal bloating and flatulence
- D. rectal fissures and constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: AIDS enteropathy typically presents as diarrhea and weight loss due to the impact of HIV on the gastrointestinal tract. While abdominal pain and rectal bleeding (Choice A), abdominal bloating and flatulence (Choice C), and rectal fissures and constipation (Choice D) can occur in some cases, the most common manifestations are diarrhea and weight loss.
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