Nursing Elites

1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

2. Which of the following interventions should not be included in the care plan for a client with major depressive disorder?

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Discourage verbalization of feelings
• D. Monitor for suicidal ideation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interventions for a client with major depressive disorder should focus on promoting activities, adequate nutrition, hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation. Verbalizing feelings is a crucial part of therapy for clients with depression as it helps in processing emotions and seeking support. Therefore, discouraging verbalization of feelings is not appropriate and goes against therapeutic principles.

3. A patient presents in the Emergency Department immediately following a shooting incident in a school where she has been teaching. There is no evidence of physical injury, but she appears very hyperactive and talkative. Which of these symptoms manifested by the patient is an uncommon initial biological response to stress?

• A. Constricted pupils
• B. Watery eyes
• C. Palpitations
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased lacrimal secretions, palpitations, and increased heart rate are common initial biological responses to stress. Constricted pupils are not typical in the initial response to stress and are more associated with the opposite response, the Rest and Digest system. Watery eyes, palpitations, and increased heart rate are indicative of the body's fight or flight response to stress. Unusual food cravings are not a typical biological response to stress.

4. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects shouldn't the nurse monitor for?

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Decreased need for sleep
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Decreased need for sleep.' While antipsychotic medications can cause side effects like tardive dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia, a decreased need for sleep is not a common side effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for the known side effects of antipsychotic medications to ensure early detection and appropriate management.

5. When assessing a patient with major depressive disorder, which symptom would most likely be observed?

• A. Euphoria
• B. Anhedonia
• C. Increased energy
• D. Racing thoughts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anhedonia, the inability to feel pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable, is a hallmark symptom of major depressive disorder. Patients with major depressive disorder often experience a pervasive feeling of emptiness and loss of interest in activities they used to find pleasurable. Euphoria, increased energy, and racing thoughts are more commonly associated with conditions like bipolar disorder rather than major depressive disorder.

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