Nursing Elites

1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

2. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Paroxetine, an SSRI commonly prescribed for OCD, can lead to sexual dysfunction as a side effect. Patients should be educated about this potential adverse effect to ensure they are aware and can seek appropriate management if needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because insomnia, weight loss, and hypertension are not typically associated with paroxetine use as common side effects in patients with OCD.

3. Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Monitor the patient's vital signs frequently.
• B. Keep the patient distracted with group-oriented activities.
• C. Provide the patient with frequent milkshakes and protein drinks.
• D. Reduce the volume on the television and dim bright lights in the environment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior, it is crucial to monitor vital signs frequently to ensure the patient's physical health is stable. Providing nutrition, such as milkshakes and protein drinks, is essential to meet the patient's dietary needs. Diminishing environmental stimuli by reducing the volume on the television and dimming bright lights can help create a calmer environment. However, keeping the patient distracted with group-oriented activities may not be the most appropriate intervention as it could potentially exacerbate the manic behavior by overstimulating the patient. Therefore, this choice is the one that doesn't apply in managing manic behavior effectively.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. When educating a client prescribed diazepam for anxiety, which statement indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication only when I feel anxious.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should avoid driving until I know how this medication affects me.
• D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients prescribed diazepam for anxiety should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can potentiate the side effects of diazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, increasing the risk of harm. Choice A is incorrect because diazepam is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when feeling anxious. Choice C is also important but not directly related to the medication itself. Choice D is dangerous advice; stopping diazepam abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

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