Nursing Elites

1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

2. When interviewing a distressed client who was fired after 15 years of loyal employment, which of the following questions would best assist the nurse in determining the client's appraisal of the situation? Select the one that does not apply.

• A. What coping resources have you used previously in stressful situations?
• B. Have you ever faced a similar stressful situation before?
• C. Who do you think is to blame for this situation?
• D. What do you believe led to your termination from your job?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the nurse to help the client assess their coping mechanisms and perspective on the situation. Questions A and B focus on exploring the client's coping resources and past experiences to guide them towards effective stress management. Asking who is to blame (choice C) is not conducive to evaluating coping abilities; instead, it might elicit a blame-focused response, which can impede progress. Choice D, inquiring about the reason for being fired, is a nontherapeutic approach that does not promote a constructive appraisal of the situation.

3. When a husband accuses his wife of infidelity, which situation would indicate to the nurse the husband's use of the ego defense mechanism of projection?

• A. The husband cries and stamps his feet, demanding that his wife be true to her marriage vows.
• B. The husband ignores the wife's continued absence from the home.
• C. The husband has already admitted to having an affair with a coworker.
• D. The husband takes out his marital frustrations through employee abuse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes their unacceptable feelings or impulses to another person. In this scenario, the husband, by admitting to having an affair with a coworker, is projecting his infidelity onto his wife, indicating the use of the projection defense mechanism. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different behavior, not projection. Choice B does not demonstrate projection but rather avoidance or denial. Choice D shows displacement of aggression, not projection.

4. How do epidemiological studies contribute to improvements in care for individuals with mental disorders?

• A. Providing information about effective nursing techniques.
• B. Identifying risk factors that contribute to the development of a disorder.
• C. Identifying individuals in the general population who will develop a specific disorder.
• D. Identifying which individuals will respond favorably to a specific treatment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Epidemiological studies play a crucial role in identifying risk factors associated with the development of mental disorders. By pinpointing these risk factors, healthcare providers can implement preventive measures and develop more effective treatments, ultimately leading to improved care for individuals with mental disorders.

5. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
• B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
• C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
• D. The client shows no change in behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), one of the primary objectives is to help clients identify and challenge their negative thoughts. This process allows the individual to reframe their thinking patterns and develop more adaptive coping strategies. Reporting an increase in suicidal thoughts (Choice B) or experiencing an increase in anxiety (Choice C) are not desired outcomes and may indicate a need for further intervention. Showing no change in behavior (Choice D) suggests that the therapy has not been effective. Therefore, the correct indicator of effective therapy in this context is the client's ability to identify and challenge negative thoughts (Choice A).

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