at what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

2. During a community education session on mental health, which statement about stigma and mental illness is correct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Stigma can prevent individuals from seeking treatment.' Stigma surrounding mental illness can create barriers for individuals seeking treatment. It can lead to feelings of shame, fear of judgment, and discrimination, which may deter individuals from accessing the necessary support and care they need. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stigma does have a significant impact on treatment outcomes by discouraging individuals from seeking help, it is not limited to developing countries but is a global issue, and unfortunately, stigma related to mental illness is still prevalent worldwide, although efforts are being made to reduce it.

3. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

4. A client prescribed fluoxetine for depression is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine can cause drowsiness, affecting a person's ability to drive safely. It is essential to avoid driving until the client knows how the medication affects them to ensure safety. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is recommended to be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, not specifically to avoid stomach upset. Choice D is incorrect because fluoxetine is typically prescribed for depression or other mood disorders on a daily basis, not as needed for anxiety.

5. When using therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression, an effective method of managing the silence is to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using the technique of making observations is an effective method of managing silence when communicating with a withdrawn patient who has major depression. This approach can encourage the patient to engage and feel understood without the pressure to respond, fostering a therapeutic connection and helping the patient open up at their own pace.

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