at what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder
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ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

2. A patient with major depressive disorder is being treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Memory loss, especially short-term memory loss, is a common side effect associated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). During ECT treatment, the electrical currents passed through the brain can disrupt short-term memory formation. This side effect is usually temporary, but patients should be closely monitored for any changes in memory function during and after the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not commonly associated with ECT. Hypertension, weight gain, and hyperglycemia are not typically observed as side effects of ECT.

3. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings should the professional expect? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), compulsive behaviors, and avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions. Delusions of grandeur, which involve inflated beliefs about one's own importance or abilities, are not typically associated with OCD. Therefore, the presence of delusions of grandeur would not be an expected finding in a client with OCD. Choices A, B, and D are all typical features of OCD and would be expected findings during the assessment of a client with this disorder.

5. When should healthcare professionals be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Healthcare professionals should be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient during change of shift reports. This is a critical time when information is transferred between healthcare providers, and any errors in communication during this handover can lead to adverse outcomes for the patient.

Similar Questions

Which intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population?
For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?
When a husband accuses his wife of infidelity, which situation would indicate to the nurse the husband's use of the ego defense mechanism of projection?
A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

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