Nursing Elites

1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

2. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a moody child with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The scenario describes Gilbert as having an early and slow onset of schizophrenia, which typically indicates a less positive prognosis. Individuals with such presentations may experience more severe symptoms and difficulties in functioning, leading to a poorer long-term outcome. In Gilbert's case, his challenges with completing tasks, social withdrawal, and fixation on security measures suggest a more challenging prognosis. Early detection and intervention are crucial in managing schizophrenia, but the described symptoms and onset pattern are concerning for a less favorable outcome.

3. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?

• A. Projection
• B. Rationalization
• C. Regression
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Rationalization. The client is using rationalization as a defense mechanism by justifying their excessive drinking as a way to relax due to working hard to provide for their family. Rationalization involves creating logical excuses to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. Projection involves attributing one's unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others. Regression is reverting to an earlier stage of development in the face of unacceptable thoughts or impulses. Sublimation is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is exhibiting negative symptoms. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Apathy
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Apathy is a negative symptom of schizophrenia characterized by a lack of interest or motivation. Negative symptoms involve a decrease or absence of normal functions, such as emotions, motivation, or socialization, rather than the presence of abnormal behaviors like hallucinations or delusions. Hallucinations (choice A) and delusions (choice B) are positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors. Disorganized speech (choice D) is an example of a disorganized symptom, not a negative symptom.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder has been prescribed an MAOI. The patient should be educated to avoid which type of food to prevent hypertensive crises?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. Tyramine-rich foods
• D. Low-fat foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tyramine-rich foods. Patients prescribed MAOIs should avoid tyramine-rich foods to prevent hypertensive crises. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAOIs, leading to a sudden and dangerous increase in blood pressure. Examples of tyramine-rich foods include aged cheeses, cured meats, pickled or fermented foods, and certain beverages like beer and wine. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not associated with causing hypertensive crises when taken with MAOIs.

Similar Questions