Nursing Elites

1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to provide medication instruction for a patient. Which of the following understandings about anxiety will be essential to effective instruction?

• A. Learning is best when anxiety is moderate to severe.
• B. Learning is enhanced when anxiety is mild.
• C. Panic-level anxiety helps the provider teach better.
• D. Severe anxiety is characterized by intense concentration and enhances the attention span.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mild anxiety sharpens the senses, increases the perceptual field, and results in heightened awareness of the environment, which enhances learning. As anxiety increases, attention span decreases, making learning more difficult. Therefore, mild anxiety is more conducive to effective instruction compared to moderate to severe anxiety, panic-level anxiety, or severe anxiety. Choice A is incorrect because moderate to severe anxiety impairs learning. Choice C is incorrect as panic-level anxiety can be overwhelming and hinder the learning process. Choice D is incorrect because severe anxiety typically leads to impaired attention span rather than enhancing it.

3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder?

• A. Sertraline
• B. Valproic acid
• C. Clozapine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Valproic acid is commonly prescribed as a mood stabilizer for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps in controlling mood swings, preventing manic episodes, and reducing the risk of depressive episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. Sertraline is an antidepressant typically used for major depressive disorder and other anxiety disorders, not for bipolar disorder. Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications primarily used in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders, not as first-line treatments for bipolar disorder.

4. Which of the following is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Drowsiness is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety. Benzodiazepines work by depressing the central nervous system, which can lead to drowsiness as a side effect. This sedative effect is often desired in the treatment of anxiety disorders, but individuals should be cautious when engaging in activities that require alertness, such as driving, while taking these medications. Insomnia, weight gain, and increased appetite are not typically associated with benzodiazepines; instead, drowsiness and sedation are more common side effects.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block acetylcholine receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this side effect to promote awareness and provide appropriate management strategies, such as maintaining good oral hygiene and staying hydrated. Choice A, hypertension, is not a common side effect of TCAs. Choice B, diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause constipation. Choice D, weight loss, is less common with TCAs as they are more likely to cause weight gain.

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