Nursing Elites

1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

2. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

3. A client has been prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you start feeling better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid consuming alcohol while taking escitalopram (Lexapro). Alcohol can potentiate side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness when combined with this medication. Choice A is incorrect because escitalopram is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia if taken at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because taking the medication with or without food does not significantly affect its absorption or side effects. Choice D is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue taking the medication even if they start feeling better, as abruptly stopping an antidepressant can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?

• A. Provide a structured environment
• B. Encourage rest periods
• C. Limit setting on inappropriate behaviors
• D. Allow the client to engage in stimulating activities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, interventions should focus on providing a structured environment, encouraging rest periods, and setting limits on inappropriate behaviors. Allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania, such as increased energy, impulsivity, and risk-taking behaviors. Therefore, it is important to avoid encouraging such activities to prevent worsening of manic symptoms.

5. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. I need to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• D. This medication may cause weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Risperidone should be taken consistently as prescribed and should not be stopped abruptly. It is essential to educate the client that discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to a worsening of symptoms or potential relapse. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate understanding of important considerations when taking risperidone, such as avoiding alcohol, taking it with food to reduce stomach upset, and being aware of the potential side effect of weight gain. Choice A suggests a misconception that the medication can be discontinued once the client feels better, which is incorrect and requires further clarification to ensure treatment adherence and effectiveness.

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