ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?
- A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
- B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
- C. When the client communicates significant distress
- D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.
2. A client experiencing a manic episode is talking rapidly and jumping from one topic to another. Which term describes this symptom?
- A. Circumstantiality
- B. Flight of ideas
- C. Tangentiality
- D. Perseveration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a manic episode, 'Flight of ideas' is characterized by rapid speech, where the individual moves quickly between topics without a clear connection. This symptom reflects the racing thoughts and impulsivity often seen in manic episodes. Circumstantiality refers to unnecessary detail and delay in getting to the point, tangentiality involves going off on a tangent or unrelated topics, and perseveration is the persistent repetition of a response or behavior. Therefore, 'Flight of ideas' best describes the symptom of rapidly changing topics during a manic episode.
3. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
- B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
- C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
- D. The client maintains a stable weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.
4. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?
- A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
- B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
- C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's unhealthy responses and contributing factors.
- D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Psychiatrists use the criteria outlined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) to determine diagnoses. The DSM-5 provides standardized criteria for the classification of mental disorders, ensuring accurate and reliable diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D are inaccurate as hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association is not responsible for psychiatric diagnostic criteria. Choice C describes a more general approach to assessment and does not specifically address the standardized criteria used in psychiatric diagnosis.
5. When under stress, a client routinely uses an excessive amount of alcohol. Finding her drunk, her husband yells at her about the chronic alcohol abuse. Which reaction should the nurse recognize as the use of the defense mechanism of denial?
- A. Hiding liquor bottles in a closet
- B. Yelling at their son for slouching in his chair
- C. Burning dinner on purpose
- D. Saying to the spouse, 'I don't drink too much!'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should recognize the client's statement 'I don't drink too much!' as the use of the defense mechanism of denial. This response indicates the client's refusal to acknowledge the reality of excessive alcohol consumption, which is a key characteristic of denial. By denying the problem, the client avoids facing the negative consequences and feelings associated with their alcohol abuse. Choices A, B, and C do not exhibit denial but rather represent different defense mechanisms. Hiding liquor bottles in a closet might indicate the defense mechanism of concealment, yelling at their son for slouching in his chair could reflect displacement, and burning dinner on purpose might suggest passive-aggressive behavior.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access