Nursing Elites

1. An influenza outbreak has spread through a long-term care residence, affecting many of the residents with severe malaise, fever, and nausea and vomiting. In an effort to curb the outbreak, the nurse has liaised with a physician to see if residents may be candidates for treatment with what drug?

• A. Saquinavir mesylate
• B. Oseltamivir phosphate
• C. Lamivudine
• D. Ribavirin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oseltamivir phosphate. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza infections. It works by inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, reducing the spread of the virus in the body. Saquinavir mesylate (choice A) is used in the treatment of HIV, not influenza. Lamivudine (choice C) is also an antiviral medication primarily used in the treatment of HIV and hepatitis B, not influenza. Ribavirin (choice D) is used to treat certain viral infections like hepatitis C, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and some viral hemorrhagic fevers, but it is not a first-line treatment for influenza.

2. A female patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and begun multiple-drug therapy. The woman has asked the nurse why it is necessary for her to take several different drugs instead of one single drug. How should the nurse best respond to the patient's question?

• A. “Multiple drugs are used because doctors need to combat the TB bacteria from different angles to effectively treat the infection.”
• B. “The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB.”
• C. “Multiple drugs are prescribed because the final testing results for TB can take up to 3 weeks to confirm the most effective treatment.”
• D. “Multiple drugs are used in order to speed up the course of treatment.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using multiple drugs in tuberculosis treatment helps prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. This approach is crucial because if the infection is not completely eradicated, the remaining bacteria may become resistant to the single drug used, making future treatments less effective. Choice A is incorrect because the use of multiple drugs is not due to uncertainty about which drug will work, but rather to address the bacteria from different angles. Choice C is incorrect as it misleads the patient about the reason for using multiple drugs. Choice D is also incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple drugs is not to speed up treatment but to ensure effectiveness and prevent resistance.

3. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?

• A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
• B. Activation of opioid receptors
• C. Blocking of NMDA receptors
• D. Stimulation of serotonin receptors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.

4. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be stopped if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it is typically prescribed continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because patients should not stop the medication if side effects occur without consulting their healthcare provider.

5. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

• A. B cell deficiency
• B. T cell deficiency
• C. Combined immunodeficiency
• D. Complement deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

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