Nursing Elites

1. A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication?

• A. Iron-deficiency anemia
• B. Hemophilia
• C. Hematologic cancers
• D. Genitourinary cancers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematologic cancers. Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma are at a high risk of developing second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common complication. Regular health assessments are crucial for early detection and management. Iron-deficiency anemia (A) is not a typical long-term complication of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Hemophilia (B) is a genetic bleeding disorder unrelated to Hodgkin lymphoma. Genitourinary cancers (D) are not the most common complication seen in survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma.

2. A gastrectomy is performed on a client with gastric cancer. In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse notes bloody drainage from the nasogastric tube. The nurse should take which most appropriate action?

• A. Measure abdominal girth.
• B. Irrigate the nasogastric tube.
• C. Continue to monitor the drainage.
• D. Notify the health care provider (HCP).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the immediate postoperative period following a gastrectomy, any bloody drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube is concerning and requires prompt evaluation. This could indicate potential complications such as bleeding from the surgical site, erosion, or other postoperative issues. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is crucial to ensure that the patient receives timely assessment and intervention. The presence of blood may necessitate further diagnostic procedures, interventions, or changes in management to prevent serious complications.

3. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

4. A client with neutropenia is admitted to the hospital. What precaution is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Strict hand hygiene.
• B. Limit visitor contact with the client.
• C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as ordered.
• D. Administer blood products as ordered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Strict hand hygiene. Neutropenic clients have a low level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Therefore, maintaining strict hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the introduction of pathogens that could lead to infections. Limiting visitor contact (choice B) is important but not as critical as preventing the introduction of pathogens through proper hand hygiene. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) and blood products (choice D) are treatment measures and do not address the preventive aspect that hand hygiene provides.

5. The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?

• A. Salvage surgery
• B. Palliative surgery
• C. Prophylactic surgery
• D. Reconstructive surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic surgery refers to the preventive removal of tissues or organs at high risk for developing cancer, even when no cancer is currently present. In this case, the patient has a positive breast tumor marking test and a significant family history of breast cancer, which places her at increased risk for developing the disease. A bilateral mastectomy is performed to significantly reduce this risk by removing both breasts, thereby preventing the potential future occurrence of breast cancer.

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