a school age child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a vaso occlusive crisis which of these should be included in the nursing plan of care
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1. A school-age child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which of these should be included in the nursing plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia require a comprehensive approach that includes adequate hydration to reduce blood viscosity, oxygenation to prevent further sickling of red blood cells, and aggressive pain management. This approach helps improve tissue perfusion and manage pain effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Correction of alkalosis is not a priority in vaso-occlusive crisis management. Administration of heparin is not indicated as it can increase the risk of bleeding in sickle cell patients. Factor VIII replacement is not relevant to sickle cell anemia as it is a treatment for hemophilia, not sickle cell disease.

2. What is the number one leading cause of death in children over 1 year of age?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accidents, such as motor vehicle accidents, drowning, and falls, are the primary cause of death in children over 1 year of age. While congenital anomalies can be a significant cause of mortality in infants, they are less common in older children. Homicide and suicide are serious issues but are not as prevalent as accidents in causing death among children over 1 year of age.

3. The charge nurse in the pediatric unit is teaching nursing students about pyloric stenosis. A student asks what causes pyloric stenosis. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis is caused by the hypertrophy (thickening) of the circular muscle of the pylorus, leading to obstruction. Choice A is incorrect as it describes intussusception, not pyloric stenosis. Choice C is incorrect as a relaxed cardiac sphincter is related to gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as it describes Hirschsprung's disease, not pyloric stenosis.

4. Melena, the passage of black, tarry stools, suggests bleeding from which source?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Melena indicates bleeding from the upper GI tract. The black, tarry appearance of the stool results from the partial digestion of blood as it passes through the intestines, typically originating from sources like the stomach or duodenum. Lower GI bleeding usually presents as bright red blood in the stool, originating from sources like the colon or rectum. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because melena specifically points to upper GI bleeding rather than issues in the perianal/rectal area, lower GI tract, or hemorrhoids/anal fissures.

5. Which physiological acid-base balance complication would be most important for the nurse to assess in a patient with diarrhea?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is metabolic acidosis. Diarrhea can lead to the loss of bicarbonate, causing an imbalance in the acid-base status of the body, specifically resulting in metabolic acidosis. High serum pH (choice A) is incorrect as diarrhea-induced bicarbonate loss would lower pH, not increase it. Normal serum pH (choice B) is not the best answer as diarrhea can disrupt the acid-base balance. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is an alkaline state, which is less likely to be caused by diarrhea.

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