ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Why is a precise amount of oxygen necessary for a patient with COPD to prevent which complication?
- A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
- B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
- C. Respiratory excitement
- D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by low oxygen levels. Administering too much oxygen can inhibit this hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory depression and potential respiratory failure. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully regulate the oxygen therapy to prevent the inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus in COPD patients.
2. A client has left homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Teach the client to scan the right to see objects on the right side of their body.
- B. Place the bedside table on the right side of the bed.
- C. Orient the client to the food on their plate using the clock method.
- D. Place the wheelchair on the client's left side.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with left homonymous hemianopsia, there is a loss of vision on the right side of both eyes. Placing the bedside table on the right side of the bed ensures that essential items are within the client's field of vision, minimizing the risk of injury or accidents. Teaching the client to scan to the right and orienting them using the clock method may be helpful strategies, but placing the bedside table on the right side of the bed is a more direct and immediate intervention to enhance the client's safety and independence.
3. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Potassium level
- C. Creatinine clearance
- D. Prealbumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.
4. When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?
- A. Fowler’s position
- B. Side-lying
- C. Supine
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler’s position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm�
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm�
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
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