Nursing Elites

1. Why is a precise amount of oxygen necessary for a patient with COPD to prevent which complication?

• A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
• B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
• C. Respiratory excitement
• D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by low oxygen levels. Administering too much oxygen can inhibit this hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory depression and potential respiratory failure. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully regulate the oxygen therapy to prevent the inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus in COPD patients.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?

• A. Confusion
• B. Pale skin
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.

3. What is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons?

• A. Parkinson’s disease
• B. Multiple sclerosis
• C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease)
• D. Alzheimer’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. While Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are serious conditions, they are not typically associated with dementia in the same way Alzheimer’s disease is. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?

• A. Match the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens
• B. Confirm the provider's prescription matches the number on the blood component
• C. Ask the client to state their blood type and the date of their last blood donation
• D. Ensure that the client's identification band matches the number on the blood unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.

5. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?

• A. Prothrombin and coagulation time
• B. Blood typing and cross-matching
• C. Bleeding and clotting time
• D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a blood transfusion, it is crucial to perform blood typing and cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. This process helps prevent adverse reactions such as transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Prothrombin and coagulation time, bleeding and clotting time, as well as CBC and electrolyte levels are important tests in other clinical contexts, but for blood transfusions, blood typing and cross-matching are essential to ensure patient safety.

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