ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes is being cared for by a nurse. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Apply fetal heart rate monitor
- C. Initiate fundal massage
- D. Initiate an oxytocin IV infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client in active labor with ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This helps monitor the well-being of the fetus during labor and delivery, enabling timely interventions if any fetal distress is detected. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter may be required in some cases, but it is not the priority in the given scenario. Fundal massage is typically done after delivery to help the uterus contract and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion may be indicated to augment labor, but it is not the initial action needed in this situation.
2. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
- D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.
3. The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
- A. 5 gtt/minute
- B. 13 gtt/minute
- C. 25 gtt/minute
- D. 50 gtt/minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour รท 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.
4. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Antiviral
- D. Beta2 agonist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.
5. Which of the following principles of primary nursing has proven the most satisfying to the patient and nurse?
- A. Administer oxygen by Venturi mask at 24% as needed
- B. Allow a 1-hour rest period between activities
- C. Patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units
- D. Studies have shown that patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Primary nursing care units have been proven to be highly satisfying for both patients and nurses. This model promotes a consistent and continuous relationship between a patient and a primary nurse, leading to improved communication, personalized care, and overall satisfaction for both parties involved.
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