Nursing Elites

1. After a patient with pancytopenia undergoes a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest, which action would be important for the nurse to take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• B. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour.
• C. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site.
• D. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a bone marrow aspiration, it is important to have the patient lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes to decrease the risk of bleeding. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Applying a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site is important for wound care but does not specifically address post-procedural positioning. Using a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound is not necessary after a bone marrow aspiration.

2. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to

• A. check all stools for occult blood
• B. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day
• C. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours
• D. check the temperature every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check all stools for occult blood. With a platelet count of 18,000/µL, the patient is at a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. Checking stools for occult blood can help detect any internal bleeding early. Encouraging fluids and providing oral hygiene are important interventions in general, but in this case, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. Checking the temperature every 4 hours is not directly related to the patient's current condition and platelet count.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
• B. Increasing preload.
• C. Decreasing cardiac output.
• D. Decreasing afterload.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.

4. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?

• A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
• B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.

5. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?

• A. Potential complication: seizures
• B. Potential complication: infection
• C. Potential complication: neurogenic shock
• D. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complication: infection. Patients with idiopathic aplastic anemia have pancytopenia, which puts them at a high risk for infections due to decreased production of all blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Infection is a significant concern in these patients. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because seizures, neurogenic shock, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated with idiopathic aplastic anemia. While seizures can occur in some conditions that affect the brain, neurogenic shock is related to spinal cord injury, and pulmonary edema is more commonly seen in conditions like heart failure.

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