Nursing Elites

1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing treatment with an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly utilized for this condition?

• A. Fluoxetine
• B. Citalopram
• C. Paroxetine
• D. Escitalopram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder due to its efficacy in managing OCD symptoms. While different SSRIs may be used based on individual patient response and tolerability, Paroxetine stands out as a well-established option for treating OCD. Fluoxetine (Choice A) is another SSRI commonly used for OCD, but Paroxetine is more commonly associated with this indication. Citalopram (Choice B) and Escitalopram (Choice D) are also SSRIs but are not typically the first choice for treating OCD.

2. A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage the client to express their feelings
• B. Teach the client relaxation techniques
• C. Promote regular physical activity
• D. Encourage the use of caffeine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with GAD should include encouraging the client to express their feelings, teaching relaxation techniques, and promoting regular physical activity. Caffeine should be avoided as it can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Stimulants like caffeine can increase feelings of restlessness and nervousness, making it counterproductive in managing anxiety. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for managing generalized anxiety disorder by promoting emotional expression, relaxation, and physical well-being, respectively. Choice D, encouraging the use of caffeine, is incorrect as it can worsen anxiety symptoms rather than alleviate them.

3. In treating a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), what is the most appropriate goal of this therapy?

• A. To explore the patient's childhood experiences.
• B. To reduce the patient's symptoms through medication.
• C. To change the patient's negative thought patterns.
• D. To improve the patient's social skills.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in treating generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is to change the patient's negative thought patterns. This therapy focuses on identifying and modifying distorted thinking patterns that contribute to anxiety. Exploring childhood experiences (Choice A) may be part of therapy, but the primary focus is on present thoughts and behaviors. While medication (Choice B) can help manage symptoms, CBT aims to address the root cause through cognitive restructuring. Improving social skills (Choice D) is not the primary goal of CBT for GAD, although it may be a secondary benefit as confidence improves with reduced anxiety.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is being discharged. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Practice relaxation techniques daily
• B. Avoid caffeine and alcohol
• C. Engage in regular physical activity
• D. Use benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When discharging a client with GAD, it is important to provide instructions that promote holistic well-being and support without exacerbating the condition. Practicing relaxation techniques daily, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, and engaging in regular physical activity can help manage anxiety symptoms effectively. These strategies focus on self-care and healthy lifestyle choices. Seeking support from friends and family also plays a crucial role in maintaining mental health. However, using benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment is not recommended due to their potential for dependence and other associated risks. Non-pharmacological interventions and therapy are usually preferred as initial approaches in managing GAD. Therefore, the option 'D: Use benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment' is incorrect and should not be included in the discharge teaching for a client with GAD.

5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

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