Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block acetylcholine receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this side effect to promote awareness and provide appropriate management strategies, such as maintaining good oral hygiene and staying hydrated. Choice A, hypertension, is not a common side effect of TCAs. Choice B, diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause constipation. Choice D, weight loss, is less common with TCAs as they are more likely to cause weight gain.

2. In the treatment of a patient with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode, which medication is commonly prescribed?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Risperidone
• C. Fluoxetine
• D. Lithium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine, a commonly prescribed antidepressant, is used to manage depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. It helps alleviate symptoms of depression by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which can improve mood and reduce feelings of sadness and hopelessness. While mood stabilizers like lithium are often used in bipolar disorder, for depressive episodes, antidepressants like fluoxetine are preferred to address the specific symptoms associated with depression. Valproic acid is a mood stabilizer often used in bipolar disorder to manage manic episodes. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that may be used in bipolar disorder to help control manic episodes or as an adjunctive treatment, but it is not a first-line medication for depressive episodes.

3. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?

• A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
• B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
• C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's symptoms and contributing factors.
• D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to determine which diagnosis to give a patient. The DSM-5 is a comprehensive manual published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) that outlines specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders. It aims to ensure accurate and consistent diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D provide inaccurate information. Hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association does not provide diagnostic labels for mental disorders. Choice C, although mentioning the assessment of patients, does not highlight the specific criteria and guidelines provided by the DSM-5 that psychiatrists use to assign diagnoses.

4. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Delusions of grandeur
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
• D. Periods of excessive sleeping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.

5. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?

• A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
• B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
• C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
• D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.

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