Nursing Elites

1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. The nurse understands that buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it:

• A. Has a high potential for abuse.
• B. Works immediately to relieve anxiety.
• C. Does not cause sedation.
• D. Is used for short-term treatment only.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it does not cause sedation. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone has a lower potential for abuse and does not cause the sedative effects commonly seen with benzodiazepines. While benzodiazepines may work immediately to relieve anxiety, buspirone may take longer to show its therapeutic effects. Additionally, buspirone is not limited to short-term treatment only, making it a preferred choice in patients where sedation is a concern or in those with a history of substance abuse.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). Which information should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Report any unusual side effects to the healthcare provider.
• D. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients taking fluoxetine (Prozac) should avoid alcohol to prevent adverse interactions.

3. A client is prescribed diazepam (Valium) for anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should take this medication only when I feel anxious.
• D. I can stop taking this medication when I feel better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients should avoid alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the sedative effects of diazepam, leading to excessive drowsiness or respiratory depression. Choice B is correct as it reflects the need to avoid alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because diazepam is usually taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under medical supervision.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Findings in a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances often lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, due to malnutrition and potential purging behaviors. Hyperkalemia, high potassium levels, is not a common finding in individuals with anorexia nervosa.

5. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mindfulness meditation.' Side effects of antipsychotic medications include tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Mindfulness meditation is not a side effect of antipsychotic medications. Choices A, B, and D are all potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medication. Hyperglycemia can occur as a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, particularly the second-generation ones.

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