Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing moderate anxiety during questioning. Which symptom shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Fidgeting
• B. Laughing inappropriately
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nail biting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpitations are not typically associated with moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting are common behavioral symptoms of heightened stress levels. Palpitations may be more indicative of physiological responses, such as increased heart rate, which can occur in severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other signs of severe anxiety include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

2. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

3. A healthcare professional is providing education to the family of a client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in daily activities.
• B. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• C. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine.
• D. Encourage the client to spend time alone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to participate in daily activities is crucial in managing schizophrenia. Engaging in activities can enhance the quality of life and reduce symptoms by providing structure, routine, and social interaction, which are beneficial for individuals with schizophrenia. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate instructions for managing schizophrenia. While expressing feelings can be helpful, daily activities have a more significant impact on managing the condition. Avoiding caffeine and spending time alone are not directly related to managing schizophrenia and may not be the most beneficial strategies.

4. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

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