Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing moderate anxiety during questioning. Which symptom shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Fidgeting
• B. Laughing inappropriately
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nail biting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpitations are not typically associated with moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting are common behavioral symptoms of heightened stress levels. Palpitations may be more indicative of physiological responses, such as increased heart rate, which can occur in severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other signs of severe anxiety include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

2. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Sertraline
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

4. Which of the following interventions are appropriate for a client experiencing a panic attack? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Stay with the client and remain calm
• B. Encourage deep breathing
• C. Move the client to a quiet environment
• D. Mindfulness meditation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, it is crucial to provide immediate support to the client. Appropriate interventions include staying with the client and remaining calm, encouraging deep breathing, and moving the client to a quiet environment. However, mindfulness meditation, which involves focusing on the present moment and may require a certain level of concentration, may not be feasible or effective during an acute panic attack. The priority is to help the client feel safe and supported, which the other interventions address more directly. Mindfulness meditation might not be suitable during a panic attack due to the heightened state of anxiety and the need for immediate calming techniques.

5. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:

• A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
• D. Lurasidone (Latuda)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can be an effective treatment for reducing mania in patients with bipolar disorder who have not responded to medication. In Ted's case, where he has a history of bipolar I disorder, lithium treatment, and manic episodes, ECT may be recommended by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to help manage his symptoms.

Similar Questions