a patient with advanced leukemia is responding poorly to treatment the nurse finds the patient tearful and trying to express his feelings but he is cl
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Oncology Quiz

1. A patient with advanced leukemia is responding poorly to treatment. The nurse finds the patient tearful and trying to express his feelings, but he is clearly having difficulty. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing emotional support and discussing the uncertain future are crucial.

2. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

3. A patient with multiple myeloma has developed hypercalcemia. What symptoms should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. In patients with multiple myeloma who have developed hypercalcemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial. Hypercalcemia can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Choice A, increased heart rate, is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or anxiety rather than hypercalcemia. Choice B, decreased urine output, is commonly seen in conditions leading to acute kidney injury rather than hypercalcemia. Choice D, hypertension, is not a typical symptom of hypercalcemia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like uncontrolled high blood pressure.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate the production of red blood cells in patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), a disorder characterized by ineffective blood cell production, including red blood cells. The primary goal of erythropoietin therapy is to increase red blood cell count, improving the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and reducing symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue and weakness. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is the best way to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy because it directly reflects the patient's red blood cell count and the success of erythropoiesis (red blood cell production).

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