ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. Normal chest tube function
- C. A blockage in the chest tube
- D. A malfunction in the drainage system
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This bubbling occurs when air leaks from the patient's pleural space into the chest tube system. It is essential to address this issue promptly to prevent complications like a pneumothorax. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber is not indicative of normal chest tube function, a blockage in the chest tube, or a malfunction in the drainage system.
2. What precaution should be advised to a patient following a cataract surgery?
- A. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
- B. Avoid NSAIDs
- C. Use warm compresses
- D. Apply cold packs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following cataract surgery, patients are advised to wear dark glasses while outdoors. This is crucial to protect the eyes from bright light and prevent complications such as excessive glare or discomfort. Choice B, avoiding NSAIDs, is not directly related to post-cataract surgery care. Choices C and D, using warm compresses and applying cold packs, are not typically part of the standard post-operative care for cataract surgery.
3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Establish IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina as it helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, relieve chest pain, and prevent further cardiac damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) may be important but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin in this scenario. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and administering aspirin (choice D) are also important aspects of managing unstable angina, but they are not the immediate priority intervention when a patient is experiencing chest pain.
4. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Serum albumin levels
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.
5. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on ECG
- B. Prominent U waves on ECG
- C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
- D. ST elevation on ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.
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