ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?
- A. “Have you experienced any allergic reactions to metronidazole before?”
- B. “Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?”
- C. “Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?”
- D. “Are you currently using any over-the-counter antihistamines?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.
2. During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:
- A. measuring serum potassium levels.
- B. monitoring for muscle rigidity.
- C. evaluating renal function.
- D. checking arterial blood gases.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.
3. How does influenza immunization produce immunity?
- A. The virus from the vaccine remains in the body until the end of the season
- B. An attenuated virus causes immune system suppression and triggers immunity
- C. The body identifies the virus and develops antibodies against the virus
- D. The vaccine remains in the injection site and produces immune cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Influenza immunization works by introducing a weakened or inactivated form of the virus into the body, allowing the immune system to recognize it as foreign. This recognition triggers the production of antibodies specific to the virus. Choice A is incorrect as the virus in the vaccine does not remain in the body until the end of the season. Choice B is incorrect as an attenuated virus does not cause immune system suppression but rather stimulates an immune response. Choice D is incorrect because the vaccine does not stay at the injection site but rather prompts a systemic immune response throughout the body.
4. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated with tamsulosin (Flomax). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?
- A. Avoid lying down after taking the medication.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.' Patients taking tamsulosin should be advised to report any side effects, such as dizziness or fainting, which can occur due to orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding lying down after taking the medication, taking it with meals, or at bedtime are not specific teaching points related to the potential side effects of tamsulosin.
5. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. A brain infection
- B. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
- C. Decreased albumin blood levels
- D. Untreated chronic bronchitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.
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