Nursing Elites

1. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

• A. Pruritis (itching)
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Altered glucose metabolism
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.

2. A client has been prescribed epoetin alfa for anemia related to chemotherapy. What lab value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin level.
• B. Hematocrit level.
• C. White blood cell count.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia, particularly anemia related to chemotherapy or chronic kidney disease. It stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which increases the hemoglobin level. Monitoring hemoglobin is the best way to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa, as an increase in hemoglobin indicates that the body is producing more red blood cells and the anemia is improving.

3. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

• A. Lymphadenectomy
• B. Needle biopsy
• C. Open biopsy
• D. Sentinel node biopsy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

4. A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patient's skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?

• A. Liver function tests (LFTs)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice, which is often associated with liver disease. Liver function tests (LFTs) help in evaluating liver health and function. A complete blood count (CBC) primarily assesses red and white blood cells and platelets, not directly related to jaundice. Platelet count specifically measures platelets in the blood and is unrelated to the yellow skin observed in this patient. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine tests focus on kidney function, not typically associated with yellow skin, making them less relevant in this context.

5. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?

• A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
• B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
• C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
• D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.

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