ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. How often should a patient be administered a tetanus toxoid?
- A. Every year
- B. Every 10 years
- C. Every 2 years
- D. Every 5 years
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tetanus toxoid should be administered every 10 years to ensure continued protection against tetanus infection. The correct answer is 'Every 10 years.' Choice A ('Every year') is incorrect as the frequency is too frequent. Choice C ('Every 2 years') is incorrect as it is too frequent for tetanus toxoid administration. Choice D ('Every 5 years') is incorrect as it does not align with the recommended interval for tetanus toxoid booster doses.
2. A patient with a diagnosis of renal failure is being treated with epoetin alfa (Epogen). Frequent assessment of which of the following laboratory values should be prioritized before and during treatment?
- A. AST
- B. C-reactive protein
- C. CBC
- D. ALT
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is AST. Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure. During treatment with epoetin alfa, it is crucial to monitor AST levels as this medication can potentially lead to liver toxicity. Assessing AST levels before and throughout treatment helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. C-reactive protein is not specifically related to the use of epoetin alfa in renal failure. While CBC (Complete Blood Count) monitoring is essential during treatment with epoetin alfa to evaluate the response to therapy, prioritizing AST assessment is more critical due to the potential for liver toxicity. ALT monitoring is also important but AST is prioritized in this scenario.
3. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?
- A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
- C. Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
- D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.
4. A 70-year-old patient is seen in the family practice clinic. Which of the following vaccines should be administered to prevent shingles?
- A. Zoster vaccine
- B. Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine
- C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
- D. Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zoster vaccine. The Zoster vaccine is recommended for the prevention of shingles in individuals aged 50 years and older. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. The vaccine helps reduce the risk of developing shingles and decreases the severity and duration of the illness if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Haemophilus influenzae Type b (Hib) vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is used to prevent HPV infections that can lead to cervical cancer and other cancers, and Pneumococcal polyvalent vaccine is used to protect against infections caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae.
5. What should the nurse include in patient education regarding the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
- A. Oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly but not 100% foolproof.
- B. Oral contraceptives may take some time to reach full effectiveness after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
- D. Taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions that may reduce contraceptive efficacy. It is crucial for patients to be aware of this to consider additional contraceptive measures when prescribed antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective when taken correctly, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is also incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly affect their efficacy.
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