Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for anemia. Which of the following adjunctive therapies is imperative with epoetin alfa?

• A. Potassium supplements
• B. Sodium restriction
• C. Iron supplement
• D. Renal dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron supplement. When a patient is receiving epoetin alfa for anemia, it is imperative to provide iron supplementation as epoetin alfa works by stimulating the production of red blood cells, which require iron for hemoglobin synthesis. Therefore, iron supplementation is crucial to support the increased erythropoiesis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium supplements, sodium restriction, and renal dialysis are not typically indicated as adjunctive therapies with epoetin alfa for anemia.

2. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

• A. Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density.
• B. Raloxifene increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
• C. Raloxifene stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• D. Raloxifene decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density, making it effective in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.

3. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

• A. Coagulative necrosis
• B. Liquefactive necrosis
• C. Caseous necrosis
• D. Autonecrosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. What is the best method to identify which type of stroke the client has?

• A. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram STAT
• B. Obtain a blood specimen for electrolytes and blood cultures
• C. Ask the client about current allergies
• D. Obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT. A cranial CT scan is the best method to quickly identify the type of stroke a client is experiencing. Options A, B, and C are not appropriate for identifying the type of stroke as they are not specific to assessing stroke types.

5. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?

• A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
• B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
• C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
• D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.

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