a patient is receiving epoetin alfa epogen for anemia which of the following adjunctive therapies is imperative with epoetin alfa
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. A patient is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for anemia. Which of the following adjunctive therapies is imperative with epoetin alfa?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron supplement. When a patient is receiving epoetin alfa for anemia, it is imperative to provide iron supplementation as epoetin alfa works by stimulating the production of red blood cells, which require iron for hemoglobin synthesis. Therefore, iron supplementation is crucial to support the increased erythropoiesis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because potassium supplements, sodium restriction, and renal dialysis are not typically indicated as adjunctive therapies with epoetin alfa for anemia.

2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

3. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). The nurse should educate the patient about what potential side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots such as swelling, redness, warmth, or pain in the affected limb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with an increased risk of hot flashes, cataracts, or bone fractures.

4. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.

5. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density, making it effective in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.

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