a nurse is teaching a patient who is starting on oral contraceptives what should the nurse include in the teaching regarding the medications effective
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. When teaching a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It is important for patients to be aware of this interaction to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and oral contraceptives typically require a period of time to reach full effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.

2. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.

3. If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the nurse will observe which response during neuro testing, where the nurse asks the client to close his eyes and then proceeds to touch corresponding parts of the body on each side simultaneously with two sharp points?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced points is impaired. This results in the client not being able to differentiate between the two points when touched simultaneously. Choice B is incorrect because the client feeling only one point suggests an intact dorsal column function. Choice C is incorrect as accurately identifying both points indicates normal discrimination ability. Choice D is incorrect as reporting no sensation does not correspond to the specific impairment related to dorsal column dysfunction.

4. A child's thymus gland is fully formed and proportionately larger than an adult's. Which of the following processes that contribute to immunity takes place in the thymus gland?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferation of T cells. The thymus gland is responsible for the maturation and proliferation of T cells, which play a crucial role in adaptive immunity. Option A, differentiation of B cells, is incorrect because B cell maturation primarily occurs in the bone marrow. Option B, production of natural killer (NK) cells, is incorrect as NK cells are mainly produced in the bone marrow and lymph nodes. Option D, filtration of antigens from the blood, is incorrect as antigen filtration is not a primary function of the thymus gland.

5. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Persistent chest pain that may radiate to the arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction. This pain is typically described as crushing, pressure-like, or squeezing. Choice B is incorrect because brief sternal chest pain on inspiration is not characteristic of myocardial infarction. Choice C is incorrect because rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness are not typical symptoms of myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because left upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to the back and shoulder is not a common presentation of myocardial infarction.

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