ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. A patient being treated for insomnia is prescribed ramelteon (Rozerem). Which comorbid mental health condition would make this medication the hypnotic of choice for this particular patient?
- A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
- B. Generalized anxiety disorder
- C. Persistent depressive disorder
- D. Substance use disorder
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Substance use disorder. Ramelteon is preferred for patients with substance use disorder because it lacks abuse potential. This makes it a safer choice for individuals with a history of substance misuse. Choosing a medication with a lower risk of abuse in this population is crucial to prevent potential misuse or dependence issues.
2. A client has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. Which behavior is characteristic of this disorder?
- A. Excessive need for attention
- B. Instability in relationships
- C. Fear of abandonment
- D. Lack of interest in activities
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instability in relationships. Individuals with borderline personality disorder often exhibit instability in their relationships, characterized by intense and unstable interpersonal connections, oscillating between idealization and devaluation. This pattern can lead to frequent conflicts, dramatic emotional shifts, and difficulties maintaining stable relationships. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While individuals with borderline personality disorder may also have an excessive need for attention, fear of abandonment, or lack of interest in activities, the hallmark feature defining this disorder is the instability in relationships.
3. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is often used to treat which of the following conditions?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
- D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a widely used therapeutic approach effective in treating various mental health conditions. While CBT can be beneficial for different disorders, it is particularly well-suited for anxiety-related conditions like generalized anxiety disorder. CBT focuses on identifying and modifying negative thought patterns and behaviors contributing to anxiety, making it a suitable choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because CBT is not typically the first-line treatment for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or posttraumatic stress disorder, although it may be used as a part of a comprehensive treatment plan.
4. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?
- A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
- B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
- C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
- D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.
5. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
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