a patient admitted with cancer asks the nurse about the difference between chemotherapy and radiation therapy which of the following responses by the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Oncology Questions

1. A patient admitted with cancer asks the nurse about the difference between chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Which of the following responses by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While chemotherapy does affect normal, healthy cells—particularly those that divide rapidly—it is not "more likely" to kill normal cells compared to cancer cells. Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which includes both cancer cells and some normal cells (like those in hair follicles, the gastrointestinal tract, and bone marrow). However, its primary goal is to kill cancer cells, and its effects on normal cells are a side effect, not the main function. Therefore, the statement that chemotherapy is "more likely" to kill normal cells is inaccurate and indicates a need for further teaching.

2. A nursing student is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia who is preparing to undergo induction therapy. In preparing a plan of care for this patient, the student should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk for Infection. Induction therapy for acute myeloid leukemia suppresses the immune system, making the patient highly susceptible to infections due to neutropenia. Preventing infections is crucial in these patients to avoid complications. Activity Intolerance (Choice A) may be a concern, but infection prevention is of higher priority. Acute Confusion (Choice C) and Risk for Spiritual Distress (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this situation.

3. A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine bloodwork. What should the nurse monitor for in this patient as a priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In polycythemia vera, there is an overproduction of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which leads to increased blood viscosity and a high risk for thrombosis (blood clot formation). Monitoring the platelet count is a priority because elevated platelet levels contribute significantly to the risk of developing blood clots, which can result in life-threatening complications such as strokes, heart attacks, or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, regular monitoring of the platelet count is essential to assess the patient’s risk for thrombosis and to guide treatment decisions, such as phlebotomy or medication adjustments to lower platelet levels.

4. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

5. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Primary prevention involves actions taken to reduce the risk of developing cancer by preventing exposure to known risk factors or promoting healthy behaviors. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen is an example of primary prevention because it aims to reduce the risk of skin cancer by minimizing exposure to harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Encouraging protective measures such as wearing sunscreen, avoiding tanning beds, and wearing protective clothing are all steps to prevent skin cancer before it develops.

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