Nursing Elites

1. A patient admitted with cancer asks the nurse about the difference between chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Which of the following responses by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Chemotherapy kills cancer cells
• B. Radiation therapy can be internal or external
• C. Radiation therapy is often external
• D. Chemotherapy is more likely to kill normal cells

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While chemotherapy does affect normal, healthy cells—particularly those that divide rapidly—it is not "more likely" to kill normal cells compared to cancer cells. Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which includes both cancer cells and some normal cells (like those in hair follicles, the gastrointestinal tract, and bone marrow). However, its primary goal is to kill cancer cells, and its effects on normal cells are a side effect, not the main function. Therefore, the statement that chemotherapy is "more likely" to kill normal cells is inaccurate and indicates a need for further teaching.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is at risk for anemia. What is the most appropriate intervention to address this risk?

• A. Administering iron supplements
• B. Administering blood transfusions
• C. Providing a high-iron diet
• D. Administering erythropoietin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), the bone marrow does not produce enough healthy blood cells, leading to conditions such as anemia. Administering erythropoietin is an effective intervention to manage anemia in MDS patients because it stimulates the production of red blood cells. This can help improve the patient’s hemoglobin levels, reducing symptoms such as fatigue and weakness associated with anemia. Erythropoietin is commonly used in MDS to enhance red blood cell production and reduce the need for frequent blood transfusions.

3. A client with cancer has anorexia and mucositis, and is losing weight. The client’s family members continually bring favorite foods to the client and are distressed when the client won’t eat them. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Explain the pathophysiologic reasons behind the client not eating.
• B. Help the family show other ways to demonstrate love and caring.
• C. Suggest foods and liquids the client might be willing to try to eat.
• D. Tell the family the client isn’t able to eat now no matter what they bring.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to help the family show other ways to demonstrate love and caring. When a client with cancer is experiencing anorexia and mucositis, it can be challenging for them to eat even their favorite foods. By assisting the family in finding alternative ways to provide comfort and care, the nurse can help create a supportive environment for the client. Option A is not the best choice as explaining the pathophysiologic reasons may not address the emotional needs of the client and family. Option C, suggesting foods and liquids, might not be helpful if the client is unable to tolerate them due to their condition. Option D, telling the family that the client can't eat, may come across as dismissive and not supportive of the family's concerns.

4. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?

• A. Cyanosis
• B. Arm edema
• C. Periorbital edema
• D. Mental status changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, becomes compressed or obstructed, often by a tumor or enlarged lymph nodes, typically in cancers like lung cancer or lymphoma. The obstruction leads to increased venous pressure and reduced blood flow, resulting in swelling and edema in areas drained by the superior vena cava. Periorbital edema (swelling around the eyes) is one of the earliest signs of SVCS. This occurs because the impaired venous return causes fluid to accumulate in the soft tissues of the face, especially around the eyes. As the condition progresses, facial swelling can worsen, and other symptoms develop.

5. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

Similar Questions