Nursing Elites

1. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts less than 15 minutes
• D. No relief from taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.

2. A healthcare professional auscultates a harsh hollow sound over a client's trachea & larynx. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Document findings.
• B. Administer O2 therapy.
• C. Position client in high-Fowler's position.
• D. Administer prescribed albuterol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional has identified bronchial breath sounds, which are normal findings over the trachea & larynx, characterized by harsh, hollow, tubular, and blowing sounds. The appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional is to document these normal findings. Oxygen therapy, administering albuterol, or repositioning the client is unnecessary as this finding does not indicate a need for intervention.

3. Prior to a thoracentesis, what intervention should the nurse complete?

• A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after the procedure.
• B. Verify that the client has given informed consent.
• C. Explain the procedure briefly to the client and their family.
• D. Ensure informed consent has been obtained from the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a thoracentesis procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This process involves explaining the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives to the client, and obtaining their signature on the consent form. Verifying informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step to protect the client's autonomy and ensure they have made an informed decision about the procedure.

4. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) appears thin and disheveled. Which question should the nurse ask first?

• A. Do you have a strong support system?
• B. What do you understand about your disease?
• C. Do you experience shortness of breath with basic activities?
• D. What medications are you prescribed to take each day?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with severe COPD, shortness of breath can significantly impact their ability to perform basic activities like bathing and eating. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to assess if shortness of breath is interfering with the client's basic activities, which can provide crucial information for planning and managing care.

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