Nursing Elites

1. A nurse works on an oncology unit and delegates personal hygiene to assistive personnel (AP). What action by the AP requires intervention from the nurse?

• A. Allowing a very tired client to skip oral hygiene and sleep.
• B. Assisting clients with washing the perianal area every 12 hours.
• C. Helping the client use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care.
• D. Reminding the client to rinse the mouth with water or saline.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skipping oral hygiene is not appropriate for a client, even if they are tired, as it increases the risk of infection.

2. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

3. An emergency department nurse is triaging a 77-year-old man who presents with uncharacteristic fatigue as well as back and rib pain. The patient denies any recent injuries. The nurse should recognize the need for this patient to be assessed for what health problem?

• A. Hodgkin disease
• B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
• C. Multiple myeloma
• D. Acute thrombocythemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is multiple myeloma (choice C). Back pain is a common presenting symptom in multiple myeloma, especially in older patients. This malignancy can lead to bone pain due to bone destruction and fractures. Hodgkin disease (choice A) and Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (choice B) typically present with symptoms like painless lymph node enlargement, fever, and weight loss. Acute thrombocythemia (choice D) is characterized by an increase in platelet count but is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the patient.

4. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?

• A. Adhering to primary tumor cells
• B. Inducing mutation of cells of another organ
• C. Phagocytizing healthy cells
• D. Invading healthy host tissues

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.

5. Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of conization with a client who has microinvasive cervical cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client, indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Infection
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Cervical stenosis
• D. Ovarian perforation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Ovarian perforation.' Ovarian perforation is not a complication associated with conization; therefore, if the client identifies this as a potential complication, it indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Infection, hemorrhage, and cervical stenosis are potential complications of conization, so identifying them would not necessarily indicate a need for further teaching.

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