a client has a platelet count of 9800mm3 what action by the nurse is most appropriate
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Oncology Questions

1. A client has a platelet count of 9800/mm3. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count of 9800/mm³ indicates severe thrombocytopenia, placing the client at high risk for bleeding, even with minor trauma or injury. Instructing the client to call for help before getting out of bed ensures they receive assistance with mobility, which reduces the risk of falls or injuries that could lead to serious bleeding. Preventing any activity that could result in trauma is crucial when managing clients with very low platelet counts.

2. A patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is undergoing chemotherapy and develops neutropenia. What is the most important nursing intervention for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining a sterile environment is crucial to prevent infection in neutropenic patients.

3. The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic surgery refers to the preventive removal of tissues or organs at high risk for developing cancer, even when no cancer is currently present. In this case, the patient has a positive breast tumor marking test and a significant family history of breast cancer, which places her at increased risk for developing the disease. A bilateral mastectomy is performed to significantly reduce this risk by removing both breasts, thereby preventing the potential future occurrence of breast cancer.

4. A nurse at a long-term care facility is amending the care plan of a resident who has just been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydroxyurea is effective in lowering the platelet count for patients with ET.

5. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

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