Nursing Elites

1. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?

• A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
• B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
• C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
• D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.

2. The nurse is assessing the perineal wound in a client who has returned from the operating room following an abdominal perineal resection and notes serosanguineous drainage from the wound. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Clamp the Penrose drain.
• B. Change the dressing as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP).
• D. Remove and replace the perineal packing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate nursing intervention for serosanguineous drainage from the wound is to change the dressing as prescribed. This helps in maintaining wound cleanliness, preventing infection, and promoting proper wound healing. Clamping the Penrose drain (Choice A) is not indicated as the drainage is from the wound itself, not the drain. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary if there are signs of infection or other concerning issues, but changing the dressing should be done first. Removing and replacing the perineal packing (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider after assessing the wound.

3. The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?

• A. Salvage surgery
• B. Palliative surgery
• C. Prophylactic surgery
• D. Reconstructive surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic surgery refers to the preventive removal of tissues or organs at high risk for developing cancer, even when no cancer is currently present. In this case, the patient has a positive breast tumor marking test and a significant family history of breast cancer, which places her at increased risk for developing the disease. A bilateral mastectomy is performed to significantly reduce this risk by removing both breasts, thereby preventing the potential future occurrence of breast cancer.

4. A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patient's skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?

• A. Liver function tests (LFTs)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: Yellow skin is a sign of jaundice, which is often associated with liver disease. Liver function tests (LFTs) help in evaluating liver health and function. A complete blood count (CBC) primarily assesses red and white blood cells and platelets, not directly related to jaundice. Platelet count specifically measures platelets in the blood and is unrelated to the yellow skin observed in this patient. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine tests focus on kidney function, not typically associated with yellow skin, making them less relevant in this context.

5. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

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