Nursing Elites

1. A patient with myelofibrosis is being treated with ruxolitinib. What should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this treatment?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• D. Spleen size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit is essential to assess the effectiveness of ruxolitinib in treating myelofibrosis. Ruxolitinib works by inhibiting JAK1 and JAK2, which are involved in the signaling pathways that regulate blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels can provide valuable information on how well the drug is managing the disease. Blood pressure, white blood cell count, and spleen size are not direct indicators of the treatment's effectiveness in myelofibrosis.

2. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

3. A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera, and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend to prevent the complications of this health problem?

• A. Avoiding natural sources of vitamin K
• B. Avoiding altitudes of 1500 feet (457 meters)
• C. Performing active range of motion exercises daily
• D. Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs. Patients with polycythemia vera are at risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), so it is essential to avoid tight and restrictive clothing that can impede circulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding natural sources of vitamin K, altitudes of 1500 feet, and performing active range of motion exercises are not directly related to preventing complications of polycythemia vera.

4. An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patient’s wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?

• A. Malignant cells contain more fibronectin than normal body cells.
• B. Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens.
• C. Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more durable and stable than those of normal cells.
• D. The nuclei of cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Malignant (cancer) cells often express tumor-specific antigens (TSAs), which are proteins or markers on the surface of cancer cells that are not found on normal cells. These antigens are produced due to genetic mutations in cancer cells and can sometimes be used to help the immune system recognize and attack cancerous cells. Tumor-specific antigens play a key role in cancer diagnosis, monitoring, and targeted therapies.

5. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

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