a nurse teaches a client who is prescribed a central vascular access device which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation

1. A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed a central vascular access device. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

2. The ICU nurse is caring for a patient who experienced trauma in a workplace accident. The patient is complaining of having trouble breathing with abdominal pain. An ABG reveals the following results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 23 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize the likelihood of what acidbase disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. Which negative ion is most important in intracellular fluid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intracellular fluid contains phosphate ions and protein molecules as essential anions. Phosphate ions play a crucial role in various cellular processes, including energy transfer. Proteins, being large molecules with negative charges, also contribute significantly to the negative ion concentration within cells. Chlorine is primarily an extracellular anion and is not as prominent as phosphate ions and proteins within intracellular fluid, making it a less important negative ion in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is D because both phosphate ions and protein molecules are crucial negative ions in intracellular fluid.

4. . A nurse is planning care for a nephrology patient with a new nursing graduate. The nurse states, A patient in renal failure partially loses the ability to regulate changes in pH. What is the cause of this partial inability?

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

5. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

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