Nursing Elites

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. The nurse has administered 4 oz of orange juice to an alert patient whose blood glucose was 62 mg/dL. Fifteen minutes later, the blood glucose is 67 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice.
• B. Administer the PRN glucagon (Glucagon) 1 mg IM.
• C. Have the patient eat some peanut butter with crackers.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider about the hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice. The patient's blood glucose has increased from 62 mg/dL to 67 mg/dL after consuming the initial 4 oz of orange juice, indicating that the treatment is effective. Providing additional orange juice will help further raise the blood glucose levels. Administering glucagon (Choice B) is not necessary as the patient's blood glucose is already rising. Having the patient eat peanut butter with crackers (Choice C) is a slower-acting option compared to orange juice. Notifying the healthcare provider about the hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the patient's blood glucose is improving.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L). Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Positive Chvostek's sign
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Numbness of the extremities
• D. Abdominal cramping

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping is a common symptom of hyponatremia due to an imbalance in electrolytes. While other options like Chvostek's sign, bradycardia, and numbness of the extremities can be associated with other electrolyte imbalances, they are not typically seen with low sodium levels. Chvostek's sign is related to hypocalcemia, bradycardia can be seen in hyperkalemia, and numbness of the extremities can be a symptom of hypocalcemia or hypokalemia, but not directly related to hyponatremia.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Pad the client's wrists before applying the restraints.
• B. Evaluate the client's circulation every 8 hours after application.
• C. Secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails.
• D. Remove the restraints every 4 hours to evaluate the client's status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When applying wrist restraints, it is crucial to secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails to ensure the client's safety and prevent injury. Padding the client's wrists (Choice A) is not a standard practice and may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints. Evaluating the client's circulation (Choice B) is important but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours to ensure prompt detection of any circulation issues. Removing the restraints every 4 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or agitation in the client.

5. A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam

• A. every 2 years
• B. as soon as possible
• C. when the patient is 39 years old
• D. within the first year after diagnosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B' - as soon as possible. Patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam shortly after diagnosis to check for any signs of diabetic retinopathy, a common complication of diabetes. Waiting for 2 years (choice A) may lead to missing early signs of eye damage. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific age requirement mentioned for the eye exam. Choice D is also incorrect because early detection and intervention are crucial in diabetic eye disease.

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