ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023
1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?
- A. 0.40 FTEs
- B. 17.0 FTEs
- C. 0.05 FTEs
- D. 1.0 FTEs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.
2. Selye's stress theory explains that a person stressed for long periods of time will:
- A. Face exhaustion and be more susceptible to illnesses.
- B. Become fatigued and become stronger.
- C. Become more assertive.
- D. Safety needs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Selye's stress theory posits that individuals experiencing prolonged stress are likely to face exhaustion and become more susceptible to illnesses. This is because the body's response to chronic stress can lead to physical and psychological depletion, increasing the risk of health problems. Choice B is incorrect as becoming stronger is not a typical outcome of prolonged stress according to Selye's theory. Choice C, becoming more assertive, is not directly related to the physical implications of chronic stress. Choice D, safety needs, is unrelated to Selye's stress theory and does not reflect the expected outcomes of prolonged stress.
3. Which of the following is one of the positive benefits of conflict within an organization?
- A. Conflict leads to compromise on values and beliefs.
- B. Conflict leads to intergroup competition.
- C. Conflict helps people recognize differences and motivates people towards improved performance.
- D. Conflict always leads to a win-win resolution.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Conflict within an organization can help people recognize legitimate differences and motivate them towards improved performance. This recognition of differences can lead to constructive discussions and solutions. Choice A is incorrect because conflict does not necessarily always lead to compromising values and beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as conflict should not be about fostering intergroup competition but rather about addressing and resolving issues. Choice D is incorrect as conflicts do not always result in a win-win resolution; sometimes, compromises or trade-offs are necessary for resolution.
4. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
- A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
- B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
- C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
- D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
5. Which of the following best describes the concept of interprofessional collaboration in healthcare?
- A. The process by which multiple healthcare professionals work together to improve patient outcomes
- B. A method for healthcare professionals to work independently within their scope of practice
- C. The use of standardized protocols to ensure consistent care
- D. A way for healthcare professionals to share patient information electronically
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Interprofessional collaboration in healthcare refers to the coordinated efforts of multiple healthcare professionals working together to enhance patient outcomes. This collaborative approach involves professionals from different disciplines contributing their expertise to provide comprehensive care and improve the overall quality of patient treatment. Choice B is incorrect because interprofessional collaboration emphasizes teamwork and collective efforts rather than working independently. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to standardization of care protocols, not collaboration among professionals. Choice D is incorrect as sharing patient information electronically is a component of information exchange but not the primary focus of interprofessional collaboration.
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