Nursing Elites

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

• A. Role ambiguity
• B. Role overload
• C. Role conflict
• D. Sick role

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance caring for their loved one with dementia and managing household responsibilities. This situation represents role conflict, where conflicting demands from different roles (caregiver and homemaker) create stress. Role ambiguity (choice A) refers to uncertainty about what is expected in a role, not conflicting demands. Role overload (choice B) occurs when there are too many responsibilities within a single role, not conflicting roles. The sick role (choice D) is a sociological concept related to the rights and responsibilities of individuals who are ill.

3. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

4. Under which category does a violation of the nurse practice act fall?

• A. Juvenile offenses
• B. Felonies
• C. Misdemeanors
• D. Torts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A violation of the nurse practice act falls under the category of tort. Tort refers to civil wrongs that cause harm or loss to another person, and a violation of the nurse practice act can result in a civil lawsuit against the nurse for negligence or malpractice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a violation of the nurse practice act does not fall under juvenile offenses, felonies, or misdemeanors, but rather under civil wrongs known as torts.

5. What is the primary function of discipline?

• A. To punish
• B. To evaluate
• C. To teach
• D. To ridicule

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary function of discipline is to teach individuals appropriate behavior and help them learn from their mistakes. Discipline is meant to guide individuals towards self-improvement and understanding of rules and expectations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because discipline is not primarily about punishment, evaluation, or ridicule. While consequences may be a part of discipline, the main goal is to educate and promote positive behavior.

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