a nurse manager is working on the personnel budget for the year the manager anticipates she will need to replace 832 benefit hours for the year how ma
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse leader?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Inspiring and motivating the healthcare team.' Nurse leaders play a crucial role in fostering a positive and collaborative work environment by motivating and inspiring their team members. Choice A is incorrect because managing patient care directly is typically the responsibility of staff nurses, while nurse leaders focus on leadership and coordination. Choice B is incorrect as enforcing healthcare policies is usually a function of compliance officers or administrators. Choice D is also incorrect as ensuring regulatory compliance is important but is usually overseen by compliance officers or regulatory affairs specialists, not specifically the role of a nurse leader.

3. During a discussion about the nursing profession at a middle school, which of the following statements is true?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurses are healthcare professionals who can independently make decisions within their defined scope of practice, providing care to patients. This autonomy allows nurses to assess, diagnose, plan, intervene, and evaluate patient care without direct supervision from physicians. Choice A is incorrect because nurses need to graduate from nursing school to earn a degree, not necessarily to obtain a license. Choice B is incorrect because while continuous education is important in nursing, it is not a defining characteristic of the profession. Choice D is incorrect because while nurses are expected to adhere to professional behaviors, it is not limited to their professional lives but extends to their personal lives as well.

4. A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client experiencing vomiting and diarrhea, the nurse should expect findings such as dehydration, which can lead to hypovolemia and subsequent increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. A blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg is indicative of possible dehydration in this client. Urine specific gravity is typically increased in dehydrated individuals, so choices B and D are incorrect. Neck vein distention is not a typical finding associated with vomiting and diarrhea; therefore, choice C is also incorrect.

5. Two RNs are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance. Which of the following is a reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Professional liability insurance is essential for nurses to have as it may cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations. Option A is incorrect as there are expenses involved in frivolous lawsuits. Option B is incorrect because if a nurse is found guilty of malpractice, the institution can sue the nurse. Option D is incorrect as nurses can also be sued for malpractice, not just doctors.

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