a nurse manager is working on the personnel budget for the year the manager anticipates she will need to replace 832 benefit hours for the year how ma
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ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. One of the most important driving forces behind health care policy changes is which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Ability to pay for health care.' One of the primary factors influencing health care policy changes is the financial aspect, as the ability to afford healthcare services affects access, quality, and equity. While new technology, outsourcing of services, and the emerging role of nurse practitioners may also impact health care policies, the fundamental driver often revolves around individuals' and societies' financial capacity to pay for healthcare.

3. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.

4. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

5. What is the primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing is to advocate for patient rights. While ensuring patient safety and providing emotional support are important aspects of nursing care, the core focus of patient advocacy is to uphold and protect the rights of patients. Providing financial assistance is not typically a primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing.

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