ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023
1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?
- A. 0.40 FTEs
- B. 17.0 FTEs
- C. 0.05 FTEs
- D. 1.0 FTEs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.
2. 12. A patient receives aspart (NovoLog) insulin at 8:00 AM. At which time will it be most important for the nurse to monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia?
- A. 10:00 AM
- B. 12:00 PM
- C. 2:00 PM
- D. 4:00 PM
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After receiving aspart (NovoLog) insulin, which has a rapid onset, it is crucial to monitor the patient for symptoms of hypoglycemia during the peak action time. Typically, the peak action of aspart insulin occurs around 2 hours after administration. Therefore, the nurse should be most vigilant for hypoglycemia symptoms at 10:00 AM. Choice B (12:00 PM) is incorrect as it falls after the expected peak action time. Choices C (2:00 PM) and D (4:00 PM) are also incorrect because the peak action time of aspart insulin typically occurs earlier, around 2 hours post-administration.
3. What are the key elements essential to the implementation of case management? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Collaborative practice teams
- B. Established critical pathways
- C. Quality management system
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Established critical pathways, collaborative practice teams, and quality management systems are indeed key elements essential to the implementation of case management. Collaborative practice teams allow for multidisciplinary collaboration, established critical pathways help guide patient care, and a quality management system ensures that care provided meets established standards. Choice A, collaborative practice teams, is correct as they are fundamental for effective case management, involving various professionals working together. Choice B, established critical pathways, is also correct as they provide a structured approach to managing patient care. Choice C, quality management system, is correct as it ensures that care is delivered at high standards and continuously monitored for improvement. Therefore, all these elements are crucial for successful case management implementation.
4. A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?
- A. Wear an N95 respirator when giving direct care to the client.
- B. Place the client in a private room with negative-pressure airflow.
- C. Ensure the client's room has at least six air exchanges per hour.
- D. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside their room if there is construction in the area.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a protective environment for a client with an allogeneic stem cell transplant, the nurse needs to wear an N95 respirator when providing direct care to the client. This precaution is essential to protect the client, whose immune system is compromised after the transplant, from exposure to potential pathogens. Placing the client in a private room with negative-pressure airflow (choice B) is more appropriate for clients with airborne infections. Ensuring the client's room has sufficient air exchanges (choice C) is important for maintaining air quality but is not the primary precaution for protecting an immunocompromised client. Making the client wear a mask when outside the room due to construction (choice D) focuses on external factors and does not directly address the risk of infection during direct care.
5. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event?
- A. A patient fall with no injury
- B. A medication error that results in no harm
- C. A patient suicide while in a healthcare facility
- D. A near miss incident
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, a patient suicide while in a healthcare facility. A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury. Choices A, B, and D do not meet the criteria for sentinel events as described by The Joint Commission, as they do not involve death or serious harm to the patient.
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