Nursing Elites

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam

• A. every 2 years
• B. as soon as possible
• C. when the patient is 39 years old
• D. within the first year after diagnosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B' - as soon as possible. Patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam shortly after diagnosis to check for any signs of diabetic retinopathy, a common complication of diabetes. Waiting for 2 years (choice A) may lead to missing early signs of eye damage. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific age requirement mentioned for the eye exam. Choice D is also incorrect because early detection and intervention are crucial in diabetic eye disease.

3. When should the nurse initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process
• B. As soon as the client's condition is stable
• C. After consulting with the client's family
• D. During the initial team conference

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct time for the nurse to initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure is as soon as the client's condition is stable. Discharge planning should begin early to ensure a smooth transition and continuity of care. While involving the client's family in the planning process is crucial, the primary focus should be on starting the preparations for discharge once the client's immediate health concerns are addressed and their condition is stable. Waiting for a team conference or after consulting with the family may delay the planning process, which is not ideal in ensuring a timely and effective discharge plan.

4. A patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to a urinary tract infection has been weaned off an insulin drip 30 minutes ago. The patient reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Infuse dextrose 50% by slow IV push.
• B. Administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously.
• C. Obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick.
• D. Have the patient drink 4 ounces of orange juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a patient reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty after being weaned off an insulin drip is to obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick. This will provide crucial information on the patient's current blood glucose level, helping the nurse assess if the symptoms are due to hypoglycemia. Based on the glucose reading, appropriate interventions can be initiated, such as administering dextrose, glucagon, or oral sugars like orange juice if hypoglycemia is confirmed. However, verifying the blood glucose level is the initial step to guide subsequent actions and ensure patient safety.

5. Your nurse manager talks with you once per week to determine how you are adjusting to your role as a new nurse. She asks if you feel that you are able to provide good care to your patients, whether you are becoming familiar with the electronic health record, and whether your preceptor is encouraging your independence. This manager is demonstrating:

• A. An intrusive style.
• B. An effort to understand if you are coping with the demands.
• C. An attempt to intimidate.
• D. An authoritarian style.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse manager is showing an effort to understand if you are coping with the demands of your new role as a nurse. This approach demonstrates empathy and concern for your well-being and professional development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because there is no indication of intrusion, intimidation, or authoritarian behavior in the manager's actions. Instead, the manager is engaging in supportive and constructive communication to help you adjust and grow in your new position.

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