Nursing Elites

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

• A. 0.40 FTEs
• B. 17.0 FTEs
• C. 0.05 FTEs
• D. 1.0 FTEs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. A patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to a urinary tract infection has been weaned off an insulin drip 30 minutes ago. The patient reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Infuse dextrose 50% by slow IV push.
• B. Administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously.
• C. Obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick.
• D. Have the patient drink 4 ounces of orange juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a patient reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty after being weaned off an insulin drip is to obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick. This will provide crucial information on the patient's current blood glucose level, helping the nurse assess if the symptoms are due to hypoglycemia. Based on the glucose reading, appropriate interventions can be initiated, such as administering dextrose, glucagon, or oral sugars like orange juice if hypoglycemia is confirmed. However, verifying the blood glucose level is the initial step to guide subsequent actions and ensure patient safety.

3. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching they received about pain management?

• A. ''I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain.''
• B. ''Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off of the pain.''
• C. ''It might help me to listen to music while I'm lying in bed.''
• D. ''I don't want to walk today because I have some pain.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client is demonstrating an understanding of the preoperative teaching by acknowledging the pain and relating it to the need to rest. Walking may exacerbate the pain, and the client's decision not to walk shows an awareness of their body's signals. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect a good understanding of pain management. Choice A suggests self-medicating without consulting healthcare providers, choice B focuses on distraction rather than addressing the pain, and choice C offers a coping mechanism but does not address the pain directly.

4. Nurse Managers work with staff to educate them about ways to diffuse potentially violent situations. Which of the following diagnoses can staff expect to be more frequently associated with violence?

• A. Alcohol or drug withdrawal
• B. Anxiety
• C. Depression
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alcohol or drug withdrawal is more frequently associated with violence as these conditions alter a person's inhibitions. Gilmore (2006) highlights that working with the public involves inherent risks and stressors. Individuals with head trauma, mental illnesses, and those withdrawing from substances are more likely to respond with violence. Anxiety, depression, and confusion do not typically lead to increased violent behavior compared to conditions involving substance withdrawal.

5. Selye's stress theory explains that a person stressed for long periods of time will:

• A. Face exhaustion and be more susceptible to illnesses.
• B. Become fatigued and become stronger.
• C. Become more assertive.
• D. Safety needs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Selye's stress theory posits that individuals experiencing prolonged stress are likely to face exhaustion and become more susceptible to illnesses. This is because the body's response to chronic stress can lead to physical and psychological depletion, increasing the risk of health problems. Choice B is incorrect as becoming stronger is not a typical outcome of prolonged stress according to Selye's theory. Choice C, becoming more assertive, is not directly related to the physical implications of chronic stress. Choice D, safety needs, is unrelated to Selye's stress theory and does not reflect the expected outcomes of prolonged stress.

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