a nurse manager is working on the personnel budget for the year the manager anticipates she will need to replace 832 benefit hours for the year how ma
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ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours รท 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event in healthcare?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A sentinel event in healthcare is an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness. These events are serious occurrences that warrant immediate investigation and response to prevent their recurrence and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and D do not fit the definition of a sentinel event. While choices A, B, and D are serious incidents, they do not involve an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness, which is the defining characteristic of a sentinel event.

3. A nurse enters a client's room and finds them on the floor. The client's roommate reports that the client was trying to get out of bed and fell over the side rail onto the floor. Which of the following statements should the nurse document about this incident?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Client was trying to get out of bed." This statement accurately reflects the sequence of events leading to the client's fall and provides crucial information for assessing the situation. Choice A is incorrect because documenting the completion of an incident report is not relevant to describing the incident itself. Choice B incorrectly states that the client climbed over the side rails, which is not supported by the information provided. Choice D is too vague and does not provide details about the client's actions prior to falling.

4. What is the term for working on a schedule within the unit, involving only those who are working within that unit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, self-staffing. Self-staffing is the model where staff entirely manage staffing and scheduling themselves, without external involvement. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible staffing refers to adjusting staffing levels based on demand. Internal pools involve a group of staff who can be drawn upon for scheduling needs. Management scheduling typically involves supervisors or managers creating and managing schedules for the unit.

5. What is the primary purpose of clinical pathways in healthcare?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of clinical pathways in healthcare is to provide individualized care. While clinical pathways do involve standardizing treatment plans, their main goal is to tailor these plans to the individual needs of patients. This customization ensures that patients receive care that is specific to their condition and requirements, rather than a one-size-fits-all approach. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although reducing hospital readmissions, standardizing care, and streamlining care processes can be benefits of clinical pathways, they are not the primary purpose. The main focus is on delivering personalized treatment paths to enhance patient outcomes.

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