a nurse manager is working on the personnel budget for the year the manager anticipates she will need to replace 832 benefit hours for the year how ma
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours รท 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

3. Which of the following strategies is most effective for improving staff morale?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing feedback is the most effective strategy for improving staff morale. Feedback helps employees understand their performance, areas of improvement, and areas of strength, fostering a sense of recognition and growth. Increasing workload (choice A) can lead to burnout and decreased morale. While increasing salaries (choice B) and offering incentives (choice D) can be motivating, they may not address underlying issues or provide the same level of personal development and recognition that feedback offers.

4. A client who had a stroke resulting in aphasia and dysphagia needs assistance. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assisting the client with a partial bed bath is within the scope of practice for an assistive personnel and does not require specialized medical knowledge. Choice B involves measuring BP, which requires specific training and assessment skills that an assistive personnel may not have. Choice C involves testing swallowing ability, which should be done by a healthcare provider due to the risks involved in dysphagia. Choice D involves communication, which is crucial but should be done by someone with training in managing aphasia to ensure effective communication with the client.

5. Which theory views motivation as learning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Reinforcement. Reinforcement theory views motivation as learning through the association of behaviors with consequences. Choice B, Process, is too vague and does not specifically relate motivation to learning. Choice C, Operant, is a type of conditioning that focuses on voluntary behavior and its consequences, not motivation as learning. Choice D, Conditioning, is a general term that does not directly connect motivation with learning.

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