ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about using a portable oxygen system. What instruction should the nurse include?
- A. The oxygen should be kept in a storage room when not in use.
- B. Turn off the oxygen when not in use.
- C. Check the oxygen level regularly using a pulse oximeter.
- D. Never leave the oxygen running when transporting a client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the oxygen level regularly using a pulse oximeter. This instruction is crucial as it ensures safe and adequate oxygenation for the client. Option A is incorrect as oxygen should not be stored in a storage room but in a well-ventilated area. Option B is not ideal as oxygen should be left on unless otherwise specified by a healthcare provider. Option D is also important but not directly related to the primary instruction of monitoring oxygen levels.
2. A client requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
- B. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
- C. Discuss the client's inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
- D. Assess the client's behavior every hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it ensures that the decision to use seclusion is based on appropriate justifications and helps in monitoring the client's progress and response to the intervention. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is not directly related to the need for seclusion. Discussing the client's behavior prior to seclusion (Choice C) may not be appropriate at the moment when immediate action is required to prevent harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but not as immediate as documenting the behavior prior to seclusion.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL.
- B. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
- C. Heart rate of 110/min.
- D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform postmortem care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client's dentures in a labeled container
- B. Remove the client's IV lines
- C. Place the client's body in a semi-fowler's position
- D. Lower the client's head of the bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to perform postmortem care is to remove the client's IV lines. This step is essential to help maintain the dignity and appearance of the body. Placing the client's dentures in a labeled container (Choice A) is not a priority during postmortem care as the focus is on the body's preparation. While positioning the body in a semi-fowler's position (Choice C) or lowering the client's head of the bed (Choice D) are common practices for living clients to prevent aspiration, they are not necessary after death. Therefore, the immediate action of removing IV lines is most appropriate in this situation.
5. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
- A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
- B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
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