ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased serum glucose level
- B. Increased lymphocyte count
- C. Increased serum potassium level
- D. Decreased serum sodium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, which can lead to various metabolic disturbances. One of the common findings is an increased serum potassium level. The other options are incorrect because Cushing's disease typically causes hyperglycemia, not decreased serum glucose levels (A), lymphocytopenia, not increased lymphocyte count (B), and hyponatremia, not decreased serum sodium level (D).
2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with fluid overload?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor input and output
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in assessing fluid retention accurately in a patient with fluid overload. Changes in weight can indicate fluid accumulation or loss, providing valuable information for healthcare providers. Checking for edema (choice B) is important but may not always accurately reflect total body fluid status. Monitoring input and output (choice C) and blood pressure (choice D) are also essential aspects of patient assessment, but they may not directly reflect the extent of fluid overload as effectively as monitoring daily weight.
3. A client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about dietary measures to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Carrots
- B. Cottage cheese
- C. Bananas
- D. Broccoli
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Broccoli. Broccoli is high in calcium, making it a suitable recommendation for clients at risk for osteoporosis. Carrots, Cottage cheese, and Bananas are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli, and therefore, they are not the best choices to increase calcium intake.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer aspirin for discomfort
- B. Check the client's temperature every 4 hr
- C. Monitor the client's urine output
- D. Check for stool in the client's colostomy bag every 2 hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- D. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the provider as it can indicate an air leak. This finding suggests that air is escaping from the pleural space, which can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours is within the expected range for a client with a chest tube and is not a cause for concern. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is a normal finding that indicates the system is functioning properly. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is also an expected finding that shows the fluctuation of fluid with the client's breathing and is not alarming.
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