ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased serum glucose level
- B. Increased lymphocyte count
- C. Increased serum potassium level
- D. Decreased serum sodium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, which can lead to various metabolic disturbances. One of the common findings is an increased serum potassium level. The other options are incorrect because Cushing's disease typically causes hyperglycemia, not decreased serum glucose levels (A), lymphocytopenia, not increased lymphocyte count (B), and hyponatremia, not decreased serum sodium level (D).
2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?
- A. Carrots
- B. Whole grains
- C. Lean beef
- D. Bananas
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lean beef.' Lean beef is a good source of protein, which is essential for a balanced diet. While carrots and bananas are healthy food choices, they are not specifically recommended for clients with hypertension. Whole grains are a better alternative to refined grains for individuals with hypertension, but lean beef is a more suitable recommendation due to its protein content.
3. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Monitor blood pressure
- D. Check for edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to track changes in fluid status more precisely. While monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but may not directly reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice D) is useful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring in assessing fluid balance.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
- B. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
- C. Scant urine output
- D. Serosanguineous wound drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Serosanguineous wound drainage.' Serosanguineous drainage should be reported in postoperative clients as it may indicate complications such as infection or impaired wound healing. Options A, B, and C are expected findings in a postoperative client. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal function, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range, and scant urine output may be expected initially due to factors like anesthesia and fluid shifts postoperatively.
5. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection. Which statement by the client indicates further teaching is required?
- A. I can visit someone with chickenpox 5 days after the sores crust.
- B. I should avoid eating foods that contain high folic acid.
- C. I can clean my cat's litter box during pregnancy.
- D. I should wash my hands with hot water for 10 seconds after gardening.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning a cat's litter box during pregnancy can increase the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is correct as the statement indicates understanding of the chickenpox transmission timeline. Choice B is also correct as high folic acid foods are beneficial during pregnancy. Choice D is correct as washing hands with hot water after gardening helps prevent infections.
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