ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased serum glucose level
- B. Increased lymphocyte count
- C. Increased serum potassium level
- D. Decreased serum sodium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, which can lead to various metabolic disturbances. One of the common findings is an increased serum potassium level. The other options are incorrect because Cushing's disease typically causes hyperglycemia, not decreased serum glucose levels (A), lymphocytopenia, not increased lymphocyte count (B), and hyponatremia, not decreased serum sodium level (D).
2. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Dry skin.
- C. Increased thirst.
- D. Increased urinary output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 62/min
- B. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
- D. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within normal limits and are not indicative of a potentially life-threatening complication associated with morphine therapy.
4. A client taking haloperidol is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Increase the dose of haloperidol.
- B. Administer benztropine.
- C. Administer naloxone.
- D. Monitor blood pressure before administering the next dose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms while taking haloperidol is to administer benztropine. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms caused by antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice A) would exacerbate the symptoms rather than alleviate them. Administering naloxone (Choice C) is not indicated for extrapyramidal symptoms. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the primary intervention for managing extrapyramidal symptoms.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report?
- A. Thrill upon palpation.
- B. Absence of a bruit.
- C. Distended blood vessels.
- D. Swishing sound upon auscultation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of a bruit. In a client with an arteriovenous fistula, the presence of a bruit (a humming sound) is an expected finding due to the high-pressure flow of blood through the fistula. Therefore, the absence of a bruit suggests a complication, such as thrombosis or stenosis, which should be reported for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a thrill upon palpation, distended blood vessels, and a swishing sound upon auscultation are expected findings in a client with an arteriovenous fistula and do not necessarily indicate a complication.
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