Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased serum glucose level
• B. Increased lymphocyte count
• C. Increased serum potassium level
• D. Decreased serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, which can lead to various metabolic disturbances. One of the common findings is an increased serum potassium level. The other options are incorrect because Cushing's disease typically causes hyperglycemia, not decreased serum glucose levels (A), lymphocytopenia, not increased lymphocyte count (B), and hyponatremia, not decreased serum sodium level (D).

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lipsmacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with a history of heart failure?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Metoprolol
• C. Digoxin
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is the correct answer. It is a common diuretic used in patients with heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Metoprolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker often prescribed to manage heart failure symptoms by improving heart function. Digoxin (Choice C) is used in heart failure patients to help the heart beat stronger and with a more regular rhythm. Aspirin (Choice D) is not typically prescribed for heart failure but may be used in patients with heart disease for its antiplatelet effects.

4. A client has a chest tube. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Maintain the drainage system below the client's chest.
• C. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours.
• D. Keep the collection device at the level of the client's chest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the chest tube drainage system below the client's chest level is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a tension pneumothorax, stripping the chest tube is an outdated practice that can cause damage to the tissues, and keeping the collection device at the level of the client's chest can impede proper drainage and lead to fluid accumulation.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings is an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. BUN 16 mg/dL
• B. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• C. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
• D. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min indicates severe kidney impairment and the need for hemodialysis. The other choices, such as BUN 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.

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