ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in the supine position.
- B. Perform chest percussion every 4 hours.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.
3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing morning stiffness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to avoid physical activity in the morning.
- B. Encourage the client to take NSAIDs before bedtime.
- C. Apply cold packs to the affected joints in the morning.
- D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises before getting out of bed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to apply cold packs to the affected joints in the morning. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by inflammation, and applying cold packs can help reduce inflammation and stiffness in the joints. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity in the morning (Choice A) may worsen stiffness, as movement is beneficial for joint mobility. While NSAIDs (Choice B) can help with pain and inflammation, applying cold packs directly to the affected joints is more targeted and effective. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) can be helpful, but applying cold packs is the priority for reducing inflammation and stiffness.
4. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate
- B. Administer insulin
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate
- D. Administer a diuretic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.
5. A charge nurse is preparing to lead negotiations among nursing staff due to conflict about overtime requirements. Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to promote effective negotiation?
- A. Identify solutions prior to the negotiation.
- B. Focus on how to resolve the conflict.
- C. Attempt to understand both sides of the issue.
- D. Avoid personalizing the conflict.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In negotiating conflicts, it is crucial to attempt to understand both sides of the issue. This strategy helps the charge nurse gain insights into the perspectives and concerns of all parties involved, facilitating a more effective negotiation process. Choice A is not ideal as identifying solutions prior to negotiation may overlook important viewpoints or needs. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific action plan for resolving the conflict. Choice D is incorrect as personalizing the conflict can lead to biased decision-making and hinder the negotiation process.
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