ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
- B. The client develops hiccups.
- C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
- D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the injection site after administering the medication.
- B. Insert the needle at a 45° angle.
- C. Use a Z-track technique to administer the injection.
- D. Aspirate for blood before injecting the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a Z-track technique to administer the injection.' When administering IM injections, using a Z-track technique helps prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissues. This technique involves pulling the skin laterally, injecting the medication deeply into the muscle, and then releasing the skin. Choice A is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administering the medication can lead to increased blood flow and potential leakage of the medication. Choice B is incorrect as the needle should typically be inserted at a 90° angle for IM injections to ensure proper delivery into the muscle. Choice D is incorrect as aspirating for blood before injecting the medication is not routinely recommended for IM injections.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Positive Trousseau's sign
- B. Increased deep tendon reflexes
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Weak, thready pulse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A positive Trousseau's sign is a key finding in clients with hypocalcemia, indicating neuromuscular irritability. The other choices are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypercalcemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in hyperactive bowel conditions or diarrhea, not specifically related to hypocalcemia. A weak, thready pulse may indicate cardiovascular issues, such as dehydration, but it is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.
5. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 88/min
- B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
- C. Pain level of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10
- D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.
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