a nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina which of the following findings in the clients medical history should the nurse id
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

2. A client has Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile infection is to place the client on contact precautions. This helps prevent the spread of the infection to other clients. Washing hands with an alcohol-based hand rub is important for infection control but is not specific to preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile. Wearing a mask may be necessary for airborne precautions but is not the priority for Clostridium difficile infection. Double-bagging linens is not a standard practice for preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in a seclusion room following violent behavior. The client continues to display aggressive behavior. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, speaking assertively is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Confronting the client may escalate the situation further. Expressing sympathy, although important in other contexts, may not be effective in managing aggressive behavior. Standing within close proximity to an aggressive client can compromise the nurse's safety. Therefore, speaking assertively helps to set clear boundaries and manage the situation while ensuring safety in a seclusion room.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.

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