a nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina which of the following findings in the clients medical history should the nurse id
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

3. A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the use of a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for using a peak flow meter is to place the mouthpiece in your mouth and blow out as quickly as you can. This action helps measure the peak expiratory flow of the client. Choice B is incorrect because exhaling slowly does not provide an accurate peak flow reading. Choice C is incorrect as taking a slow deep breath before blowing interferes with obtaining an accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as blowing at a steady rate for 3 seconds may not reflect the peak expiratory flow accurately.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid using deodorant until the incision heals. Using deodorant can lead to skin irritation, which should be prevented following a mastectomy. Choice B is incorrect because performing arm exercises should typically be delayed until recommended by the healthcare provider to prevent strain on the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as tight-fitting clothing can increase discomfort and hinder proper healing. Choice D is also incorrect because initiating arm exercises should be based on the healthcare provider's guidance and not a specific timeframe.

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