Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the facility's safety protocols concerning newborn abduction with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Staff will apply the identification band after the first bath.
• B. I will not make public announcements about my baby's birth.
• C. I can remove my baby's identification band as long as they are in my room.
• D. I can leave my baby in my room while walking in the hallway.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Not making public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial in preventing newborn abduction as it avoids exposing personal information. Choice A is incorrect because the identification band should be applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath. Choice C is incorrect as the baby's identification band should never be removed by the parent. Choice D is incorrect as parents should not leave their baby unattended in the room while they are outside the room.

2. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who is receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse include?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate at the bedside.
• B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
• C. Limit light exposure to the infusion.
• D. Keep the client on NPO status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension is to limit light exposure to the infusion. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, so it should be protected from light exposure to prevent degradation. Administering calcium gluconate at the bedside is not directly related to nitroprusside administration. Monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours is a good practice but is not specifically related to the administration of nitroprusside. Keeping the client on NPO status is not necessary solely based on receiving nitroprusside.

3. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath.
• B. A client who is postoperative and has abdominal distention.
• C. A client who is receiving IV fluids and has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
• D. A client who has cancer and has been receiving radiation therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.

4. A client with schizophrenia is pacing the hall and is agitated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the client if they intend to harm others.
• B. Tell the client to stop pacing the hall.
• C. Allow the client to pace alone until they feel less anxious.
• D. Walk with the client at a gradually slower pace.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hall and agitated is to walk with the client at a gradually slower pace. This approach can help reduce the client's agitation and prevent the situation from escalating. Choice A is incorrect because directly asking about harm may increase the client's anxiety. Choice B is inappropriate as it may worsen the client's agitation. Choice C is not recommended as the client may benefit from the nurse's presence and support during this time of distress.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

Similar Questions