ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a prescription for Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin to treat a Peptic Ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take these medications with foo '
- B. These medications can turn your stool black.'
- C. These medications can cause photosensitivity.'
- D. The purpose of these medications is to decrease the pH of gastric juices in the stomach.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take these medications with food to reduce GI disturbances.
2. A preschooler weighing 44 lb is to receive Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally every 12 hr. The available amoxicillin suspension is 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 4 mL
- B. 5 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 3 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dosage per administration: First, convert the weight to kg (44 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 20 kg). Then, calculate the required dosage per dose: (20 mg/kg/day x 20 kg) / 2 (for every 12 hr dosing) = 200 mg per dose. To determine the mL per dose, divide the required dosage by the concentration of the amoxicillin suspension: (200 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 4 mL per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 mL. Choice B (5 mL) is incorrect because the correct calculation yields 4 mL. Choices C (6 mL) and D (3 mL) are also incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
3. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.
4. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Ondansetron
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Promethazine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.
5. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.
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