ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Swallow tablets on an empty stomach with plenty of water.
- B. Watch for skin rash and redness when applying calcitonin-salmon topically.
- C. Mix the liquid medication with juice and take it after meals.
- D. Alternate nostrils each time calcitonin-salmon is inhaled.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. It is essential to alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication to ensure equal distribution and optimal absorption. This technique helps prevent irritation and congestion in one nostril and enhances the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed, applied topically, or taken as a liquid medication after meals. Therefore, instructing the client to alternate nostrils during inhalation is the most appropriate teaching for this medication.
2. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication before bedtime.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication with the first bite of food helps in achieving optimal effectiveness and minimizes the risk of side effects like nausea or upset stomach. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for taking Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is usually taken daily, not every other day.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?
- A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
- B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
- C. A client with a history of hypertension
- D. A client with a history of anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots forming and leading to serious complications like pulmonary embolism. Clients with a history of deep-vein thrombosis are at a higher risk of recurrent thromboembolic events when taking tamoxifen, making it unsafe for such individuals. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy, as migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not directly interact with tamoxifen's mechanism of action or pose significant risks when used together.
4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
- B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
- D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.
5. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
- B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
- C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
- D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.
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