ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Swallow tablets on an empty stomach with plenty of water.
- B. Watch for skin rash and redness when applying calcitonin-salmon topically.
- C. Mix the liquid medication with juice and take it after meals.
- D. Alternate nostrils each time calcitonin-salmon is inhaled.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. It is essential to alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication to ensure equal distribution and optimal absorption. This technique helps prevent irritation and congestion in one nostril and enhances the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed, applied topically, or taken as a liquid medication after meals. Therefore, instructing the client to alternate nostrils during inhalation is the most appropriate teaching for this medication.
2. A patient is being discharged with a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Monitor for increased blood pressure.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Monitor for leg cramps.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to monitor for leg cramps. Leg cramps can be a sign of hypokalemia, which is a potential adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. By monitoring for leg cramps, the patient can detect signs of low potassium levels and report them to the healthcare provider promptly. This proactive approach helps prevent complications associated with hypokalemia. The other options are incorrect because taking Hydrochlorothiazide before bedtime or with food is not specific to the medication's adverse effects. Monitoring for increased blood pressure is not typically a common adverse effect of this medication.
3. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Weigh yourself daily.
- C. Take potassium supplements as needed.
- D. Decrease intake of foods high in sodium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because potassium supplements should only be taken if prescribed by a healthcare provider due to the risk of hyperkalemia with furosemide. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing sodium intake is generally a good dietary practice but not a specific instruction related to furosemide therapy.
4. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. Lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL should be reported to the provider immediately. While a lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range, a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL could suggest early signs of kidney dysfunction, especially concerning in a client on long-term lithium therapy. It is crucial to monitor kidney function closely because lithium can be nephrotoxic over time. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function and should prompt immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Potassium and sodium levels within normal range are not immediate concerns when compared to potential kidney issues.
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