Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
• B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
• C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

3. A child is experiencing difficulty with chewing and swallowing. The nurse knows that which cells may be innervating specialized gut-related receptors that provide taste and smell?

• A. Special somatic afferent fibers
• B. General somatic afferents
• C. Special visceral afferent cells
• D. General visceral afferent neurons

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Special visceral afferent cells. These cells are responsible for innervating taste and smell receptors related to the gut. Special somatic afferent fibers (choice A) are involved in sensations like touch and proprioception, not taste and smell. General somatic afferents (choice B) carry sensory information from the skin and musculoskeletal system, not taste and smell. General visceral afferent neurons (choice D) transmit sensory information from internal organs, but not specifically related to taste and smell sensations.

4. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
• B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. The patient's viral load
• D. The patient's CD4 count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

5. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

• A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
• B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
• C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
• D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

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