a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is prescribed clozapine which of the following statements by the client indicates an understan
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ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the client's tube placement is the priority before administering any enteral feeding. This step ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach or intestines, minimizing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Checking the residual volume, elevating the head of the bed, and flushing the tube are important steps but should occur after confirming the tube placement to ensure the feeding is delivered safely and effectively.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an intermittent enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube requires flushing the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feeding. This action helps ensure patency and prevents clogging. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding does not address the need for pre-feeding tube flushing. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height of the feeding bag above the abdomen is typically regulated by healthcare facility policies and is not a universal standard.

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