ATI RN
ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for methylergonovine. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Headache
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Nausea
- D. Increased vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. Methylergonovine can cause vasoconstriction, leading to headaches. It is important for the client to report this adverse effect to the provider as it may indicate a serious complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methylergonovine is not typically associated with diarrhea, nausea, or increased vaginal bleeding as common adverse effects.
2. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 2 days old and has a total serum bilirubin level of 18 mg/dL. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer 1 oz of glucose water every 2 hours
- B. Feed the newborn 60 mL of formula every 4 hours
- C. Offer sterile water between feedings
- D. Initiate phototherapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Initiate phototherapy. Phototherapy is the primary treatment for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia, as it helps to break down excess bilirubin in the skin. Administering glucose water (choice A) is not indicated for treating hyperbilirubinemia. Feeding the newborn formula (choice B) or offering sterile water (choice C) will not directly address the elevated bilirubin levels in the newborn.
3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered 24 hours ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Caput succedaneum
- B. Jaundice
- C. Acrocyanosis
- D. Overlapping cranial sutures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jaundice occurring within the first 24 hours of life is a sign of pathological jaundice and should be reported to the provider. Caput succedaneum, acrocyanosis, and overlapping cranial sutures are common findings in newborns and do not necessarily require immediate reporting unless they are severe or indicate other underlying issues.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 1+ proteinuria
- B. Blood pressure 144/92 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate 22/min
- D. Urine output 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should report a urine output of 20 mL/hr. This finding can indicate decreased renal perfusion and possible development of preeclampsia, which is a severe complication of gestational hypertension. Inadequate urine output can suggest compromised kidney function and impaired maternal and fetal well-being. Options A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and may not require immediate reporting to the provider.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and breastfeeding. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent mastitis?
- A. Feed the newborn on demand
- B. Apply warm compresses to the breast before feeding
- C. Massage the breast after feedings
- D. Ensure the newborn empties one breast before switching to the other
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent mastitis, the nurse should instruct the client to ensure that the newborn empties one breast before switching to the other. This helps to prevent milk stasis, reducing the risk of inflammation and infection. Choice A is incorrect because feeding on demand is recommended to establish a good milk supply and prevent engorgement. Choice B is incorrect as warm compresses are usually applied before feeding to promote milk flow. Choice C is incorrect because massaging the breast after feedings can actually increase the risk of mastitis by causing further irritation.
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