Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1 day old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 160/min
• B. Axillary temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F)
• C. Yellow-tinged skin
• D. Respiratory rate 42/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Yellow-tinged skin. Yellow-tinged skin within the first 24 hours of life can indicate pathological jaundice and should be reported to the provider. High heart rate (Choice A), normal axillary temperature (Choice B), and slightly elevated respiratory rate (Choice D) are common findings in newborns and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless they persist or are significantly abnormal.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hyperreflexia
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to a decreased respiratory rate. A respiratory rate of 10/min is abnormally low and indicates magnesium toxicity. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (Choice B) is a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Polyuria (Choice D) is not a typical finding of magnesium toxicity.

3. A nurse is providing care for a client who is in active labor and receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contraction frequency of 2 minutes
• B. Contraction duration of 90 seconds
• C. Fetal heart rate of 150/min
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A contraction duration of 90 seconds can indicate uterine tachysystole, which may lead to fetal hypoxia. Uterine tachysystole is defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30-minute window. Contractions every 2 minutes (Choice A) may occur in active labor but need to be assessed in conjunction with other factors. A fetal heart rate of 150/min (Choice C) is within the normal range. Urine output of 60 mL/hr (Choice D) is also within the expected range for a client in labor.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has suspected placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Painless vaginal bleeding
• B. Severe abdominal pain
• C. Uterine contractions
• D. Increased fetal movement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding as the placenta is located over or near the cervical opening. This bleeding occurs because the placental vessels are stretched and bleed easily. Severe abdominal pain (choice B) is not a typical finding in placenta previa. Uterine contractions (choice C) are more characteristic of preterm labor rather than placenta previa. Increased fetal movement (choice D) is not a specific finding associated with placenta previa.

5. A client who is 2 days postpartum and breastfeeding reports nipple soreness. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid using a breast pump.
• B. Apply breast milk to the nipples after feedings.
• C. Feed the newborn less frequently.
• D. Use a nipple shield during feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to apply breast milk to the nipples after feedings. Breast milk has healing properties and can help soothe sore nipples. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the use of a breast pump does not directly address nipple soreness. Option C is incorrect as feeding the newborn less frequently can lead to engorgement and further complications. Option D is incorrect as using a nipple shield during feedings may not address the underlying issue of soreness and can sometimes even worsen the situation.

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