ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should avoid taking aspirin for headaches while on this medication.
- B. You should use a soft toothbrush to brush your teeth.
- C. You should avoid foods that are rich in vitamin K.
- D. You should avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include in discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so using a soft toothbrush can help prevent gum injury and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin, another blood-thinning medication, should generally be avoided while on Warfarin to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because clients on Warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods rather than avoid them completely. Choice D is unrelated to the medication and not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed Warfarin.
2. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
- B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
- C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
- D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.
3. When admitting a client and completing a preassessment before administering medications, which of the following data should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Use of herbal teas
- B. Daily fluid intake
- C. Current health status
- D. Previous surgical history
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Use of herbal teas.' The nurse should inquire about the client's use of herbal teas because they often contain caffeine, which can impact medication biotransformation. This information is crucial to ensure the safe and effective administration of medications and to prevent potential drug interactions. Choice B, 'Daily fluid intake,' while important for overall assessment, is not directly related to medication administration. Choice C, 'Current health status,' is essential but not specific to medication administration preassessment. Choice D, 'Previous surgical history,' although relevant for a client's medical history, is not directly linked to medication administration preassessment.
4. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- B. I will take this medication at bedtime.
- C. I will take this medication with a high-fat meal.
- D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking Atenolol, a beta-blocker, should monitor their blood pressure regularly to ensure the medication is effectively managing their condition. Monitoring blood pressure helps in assessing the drug's effectiveness and identifying any potential side effects that may influence blood pressure levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Atenolol at bedtime, with a high-fat meal, or increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not recommended actions associated with this medication and do not demonstrate an understanding of the teaching.
5. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
- B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.
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