ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to have my INR checked regularly while taking this medication.
- B. I should avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
- D. I will avoid taking aspirin while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients taking warfarin should have their INR (International Normalized Ratio) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and adjust the dose if needed. This monitoring helps to ensure the medication is working correctly and the client is within the therapeutic range. Choice B is incorrect because clients on warfarin should not avoid leafy green vegetables but should maintain a consistent intake. Leafy green vegetables contain vitamin K, which can affect warfarin, so it's important to maintain a consistent intake to keep INR stable. Choice C is incorrect as clients should not stop taking warfarin abruptly without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to serious health risks like blood clots. Choice D is incorrect because while taking warfarin, it is important to avoid unnecessary aspirin use due to an increased risk of bleeding. However, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the teaching about the need for regular INR monitoring.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Weigh the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours.
- C. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours. When a client is on TPN, it is crucial to monitor their blood glucose levels frequently to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Weighing the client weekly to monitor for fluid retention (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (choice C) is important for infection control but does not directly relate to the client's metabolic status. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water before and after administration (choice D) is not a standard practice and may introduce contaminants into the TPN solution.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 4,500/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 250,000/mm3
- D. Platelet count 100,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is lower than the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia, which is concerning in clients receiving chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range and would not be a cause for concern in a client receiving chemotherapy.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Keep the affected leg elevated as needed.
- B. Apply ice packs to the affected knee as prescribed.
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate as soon as possible.
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises as instructed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to ambulate as soon as possible is essential in preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis post knee arthroplasty. While keeping the affected leg elevated and applying ice packs can be beneficial in certain situations, early ambulation takes precedence in this case. Performing range-of-motion exercises hourly may not be necessary and could potentially cause more harm than good if not done correctly or excessively.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
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