a nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction the nurse should monitor the client for which of the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased anginal pain. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to relieve angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Monitoring for decreased anginal pain is essential as it indicates a therapeutic response to the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as verapamil's primary goal in this context is not to decrease blood pressure, heart rate, or anxiety.

2. A healthcare provider notices a discrepancy in the narcotics log. What is the appropriate response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a healthcare provider notices a discrepancy in the narcotics log, the appropriate response is to report the issue to the supervisor. Reporting discrepancies is crucial to maintain accountability and prevent potential misuse. Choice A is incorrect because simply correcting the log without addressing the underlying issue does not ensure accountability. Choice C is inappropriate as confronting the provider directly may not be the best approach and could lead to a confrontational situation. Choice D is highly inappropriate as ignoring the discrepancy and disposing of medication without proper documentation can lead to serious consequences.

3. Which nursing action will most likely increase a patient's risk for developing a health care-associated infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using a clean technique for inserting a urinary catheter increases the risk for healthcare-associated infections. Invasive procedures like catheter insertion require a sterile technique to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Choices A and B demonstrate appropriate infection control measures by emphasizing the use of sterile or aseptic techniques. Choice D represents an incorrect technique that can lead to the introduction of bacteria from the rectum into the urinary tract, potentially causing infections.

4. When is removal of the restraints by the nurse appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse can safely remove restraints once no aggressive behavior is observed after releasing two extremity restraints for an hour. Choice A is incorrect because the removal of restraints should be based on the client's behavior rather than just the effect of medication. Choice C is incorrect as exploring reasons for aggressive behavior should be done before or during the intervention, not as a condition for removing restraints. Choice D is incorrect since an apology from the client does not guarantee a change in behavior or indicate that it is safe to remove the restraints.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to a client taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection is to avoid caffeine. Ciprofloxacin can interact with caffeine, potentially leading to increased side effects or reduced effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course, even if the client starts feeling better. Choice B is incorrect as ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products or antacids as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication.

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