Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase white blood cell production.
• B. Reduce the risk of infection.
• C. Enhance red blood cell production.
• D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia?

• A. Monitoring for infection
• B. Monitoring nutritional status
• C. Monitoring electrolyte levels
• D. Monitoring liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for infection. In patients with acute leukemia, the most common cause of death is usually infection or bleeding. By closely monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, altered mental status, or elevated white blood cell count, healthcare providers can intervene promptly. Monitoring nutritional status (choice B) is important but does not directly address the most common cause of death among leukemia patients. Monitoring electrolyte levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments in cancer patients; however, they are not the most direct assessment to address the leading cause of death in patients with leukemia.

3. A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. What laboratory values should the nurse monitor to detect this complication?

• A. Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Electrolytes and uric acid levels
• C. Serum glucose and calcium levels
• D. Liver enzymes and bilirubin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Electrolytes and uric acid levels are important to monitor for the development of tumor lysis syndrome.

4. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

5. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?

• A. Disease prophylaxis
• B. Risk reduction
• C. Secondary prevention
• D. Tertiary prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack symptoms.

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