Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's vital signs every 4 hours.
• B. Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Administer the transfusion over 6 hours.
• D. Infuse the first 500 mL of blood over 1 hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only IV solution that is compatible with blood products and should be used to prime the tubing before a transfusion. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 15 minutes at the beginning of the transfusion. Choice C is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered over 2-4 hours, not 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the first 500 mL of blood should be infused slowly over 1-2 hours to monitor for any adverse reactions.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to family members of a client who has dementia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule for the client.
• B. Use clothing with buttons and zippers.
• C. Discourage physical activity during the day.
• D. Engage the client in activities that increase sensory stimulation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Establish a toileting schedule for the client. A toileting schedule helps manage incontinence and prevent accidents, promoting client dignity. Choice B is incorrect because clothing with buttons and zippers may be difficult for a client with dementia to manage independently. Choice C is incorrect as physical activity during the day is beneficial for clients with dementia. Choice D is incorrect as activities that increase sensory stimulation may be overwhelming for a client with dementia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Cough.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Chest tube drainage of 60 mL/hr
• B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• C. Chest tube drainage of 120 mL/hr
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest tube drainage of more than 100 mL/hr may indicate active bleeding, which is a serious complication post-thoracotomy surgery. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client 2 hours post-thoracotomy and do not require immediate reporting. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for an adult.

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