ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When administering subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty, what action should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Expel any air bubbles from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
- B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
- C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
- D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering enoxaparin via a prefilled syringe for deep subcutaneous injection, the nurse should insert the needle completely into the client's tissue. This action ensures proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous layer, promoting optimal therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to expel air bubbles from a prefilled syringe. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or damage to tissues.
2. A client has a new prescription for alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.
- B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with a meal to reduce gastric irritation.
- D. Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce if difficulty swallowing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking alendronate is to take it with a full glass of water after rising in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation. It is important to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication with a meal or crushing the tablet are not recommended instructions for alendronate administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the proper administration guidelines for alendronate.
3. A client with renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level is prescribed aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?
- A. Constipation
- B. Metallic taste
- C. Headache
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Aluminum hydroxide is known to cause constipation as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential adverse effect is important for their awareness and management. The other options, metallic taste, headache, and muscle spasms, are not typically associated with aluminum hydroxide use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the increased risk of constipation and provide guidance on managing this side effect to improve the client's comfort and treatment adherence.
4. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Cough
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Clients should be informed to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated with Lisinopril therapy.
5. Which of the following drugs is associated with hepatitis as a reaction?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hepatitis is a known side effect of isoniazid. It is important to monitor patients on isoniazid for signs of liver damage, including hepatitis, as part of their treatment regimen for tuberculosis.
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