a nurse is planning to administer iv alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive pulmonary embolism which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering IV Alteplase for a massive Pulmonary Embolism, the healthcare provider should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This is crucial to prevent bleeding complications at the puncture sites. Choice A is incorrect because Enoxaparin is not usually administered along with Alteplase for a Pulmonary Embolism. Choice C is incorrect because Aminocaproic acid is not typically given prior to alteplase infusion in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because Alteplase should be administered within 2 hours of onset of manifestations for Pulmonary Embolism, not within 8 hours.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. The nasal spray vaccine (LAIV) is a live attenuated vaccine that is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years. Pregnancy (choice C) is a contraindication for the nasal spray influenza vaccine. Children under 2 years of age (choice A) are also not candidates for the nasal spray. Taking a multivitamin supplement (choice D) is not a determining factor for the type of influenza vaccine a person should receive.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

4. When administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the healthcare provider observes various signs and symptoms of an overdose. Which of the following should the healthcare provider give to reverse digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digibind, also known as Digoxin immune Fab, is the specific antidote used to treat digoxin toxicity. It works by binding to digoxin in the body, forming a complex that can be excreted by the kidneys, thereby reversing the toxic effects of digoxin overdose. Naloxone is used for opioid overdoses, not digoxin toxicity. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin overdose. Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, not digoxin toxicity.

5. A nurse is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma.

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