ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A client with cancer is about to receive low-dose brachytherapy via a vaginal implant. What intervention should be included in the care plan?
- A. Remove vaginal packing.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Ambulate the client four times daily.
- D. Keep the client NPO until therapy is complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention that should be included in the care plan for a client about to receive low-dose brachytherapy via a vaginal implant is to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. This is crucial to prevent bladder distention during brachytherapy, ensuring the treatment's effectiveness and the client's comfort. Removing vaginal packing (Choice A) may not be necessary or appropriate in this situation. Ambulating the client four times daily (Choice C) is a good nursing intervention for general patient care but is not specifically related to brachytherapy via a vaginal implant. Keeping the client NPO until therapy is complete (Choice D) is not necessary unless specifically indicated due to the treatment's nature or the client's condition.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Hypertension
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.
4. A nurse is calculating a client's expected date of delivery. The client's last menstrual period began on April 12. Using Nagele's rule, what date should the nurse determine to be the client's expected delivery date?
- A. January 19
- B. 325
- C. 105
- D. 112
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nagele's rule is a method used to calculate the expected delivery date by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days. In this case, April 12 minus 3 months is January 12, plus 7 days gives January 19. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the application of Nagele's rule and are incorrect.
5. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
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