ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote airway clearance?
- A. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.
- B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increased fluid intake helps thin secretions, making it easier for the client to clear their airways. Chest physiotherapy (Choice A) is more focused on mobilizing secretions and may not be suitable for all clients with pneumonia. Suctioning (Choice B) is indicated for clients who have excessive secretions that they cannot manage effectively themselves. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) is important for clients with pneumonia to maintain adequate oxygenation, but it does not directly promote airway clearance.
2. A client at 10 weeks of gestation with a history of UTIs is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should drink 240 ml (8 oz) of water before and after intercourse.
- B. You should avoid drinking orange juice because it increases the risk of infection.
- C. You should empty your bladder after intercourse to help prevent infection.
- D. You should take a hot bath to help prevent infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is to advise the client to empty their bladder after intercourse to help prevent UTIs. Emptying the bladder after intercourse helps reduce the risk of UTIs by flushing bacteria from the urethra. Choice A is incorrect as drinking water before and after intercourse is not specifically related to preventing UTIs. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between orange juice consumption and UTI risk. Choice D is incorrect as taking a hot bath can actually increase the risk of UTIs by promoting bacterial growth.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Abruptio placentae
- C. Post maturity
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression resulting from the fetal head being compressed during contractions. They are considered benign and do not indicate fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect because early decelerations are not associated with fetal hypoxia. Choice B, abruptio placentae, is incorrect as it is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Choice C, post maturity, is incorrect as it refers to a fetus that remains in the uterus past the due date.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Wear loose clothing over the radiation site.
- B. Use scented lotions to moisturize the skin.
- C. Apply ice packs to the radiation site for pain relief.
- D. Expose the radiation site to sunlight for 20 minutes daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wear loose clothing over the radiation site. Clients receiving radiation therapy should wear loose clothing over the treatment area to prevent irritation and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect as scented lotions can irritate the skin during radiation therapy. Choice C is incorrect because ice packs should not be applied to the radiation site as they can exacerbate skin reactions. Choice D is incorrect as exposing the radiation site to sunlight can increase skin damage and should be avoided.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?
- A. Calcium carbonate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Epoetin alfa
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.
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