Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute
• B. BUN 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Prime the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water
• B. Ensure the client's consent is on file
• C. Check the client's identification using two identifiers
• D. Administer the blood through a 22-gauge catheter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer packed RBCs is to check the client's identification using two identifiers. This step is crucial to ensure that the right blood is given to the right client, preventing any transfusion errors. Priming the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water and administering the blood through a 22-gauge catheter are important steps but should come after confirming the client's identity. Ensuring the client's consent is on file is also important but is not the immediate priority when preparing to administer packed RBCs.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
• B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the residual volume before administering the feeding
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water
• D. Verify the client's tube placement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the client's tube placement is the priority before administering any enteral feeding. This step ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach or intestines, minimizing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Checking the residual volume, elevating the head of the bed, and flushing the tube are important steps but should occur after confirming the tube placement to ensure the feeding is delivered safely and effectively.

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