Nursing Elites

1. When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer antibiotics IM once per day.
• B. Initiate droplet precautions.
• C. Place the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room.
• D. Suction the nasopharynx as needed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), maintaining a patent airway is crucial. Suctioning the nasopharynx as needed helps clear secretions, prevent airway obstruction, and promote effective breathing. This intervention can aid in improving the infant's respiratory status and overall comfort. Administering antibiotics IM once per day (Choice A) is not indicated for RSV as it is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Initiating droplet precautions (Choice B) is important to prevent the spread of respiratory infections like RSV, but directly caring for the infant involves more specific interventions. Placing the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room (Choice C) is generally reserved for airborne infections, not RSV which spreads through respiratory droplets.

2. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

3. A patient is taking a first-generation H1 blocker for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which adverse effect?

• A. Skin flushing
• B. Wheezing
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Adverse Effect of Histamine � First Generation H1 blockers include dry mouth.

4. Which law provides for infants and toddlers aged 0-2 who are in need of comprehensive early intervention services?

• A. IDEA- Part B
• B. IDEA- Part A
• C. IFSP
• D. IDEA- Part C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, IDEA Part C. IDEA Part C specifically focuses on providing early intervention services to infants and toddlers with disabilities. This law ensures that children aged 0-2 receive the necessary support and services to aid in their development and address any disabilities or developmental delays early on. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. IDEA Part B pertains to services for school-aged children with disabilities, IDEA Part A does not exist in the context of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), and IFSP stands for Individualized Family Service Plan, which is a document outlining services for children from birth to age 3 who are experiencing developmental delays or disabilities, but it is not a law in itself.

5. The patient with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium and has a new prescription for captopril for hypertension. The combination of these two drugs makes which assessment particularly important?

• A. Potassium level
• B. Lithium level
• C. Creatinine level
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When captopril, an ACE inhibitor, is combined with lithium, it can lead to lithium accumulation. Therefore, monitoring lithium levels is crucial to prevent toxicity. While ACE inhibitors like captopril can cause hyperkalemia, renal insufficiency, and hypotension, the risk of these effects is not increased by the combination of lithium and captopril.

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